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Though I have to say one thing to MahohonySnail. If you're gonna quote the Bible, then at least do it right.
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Not sure which planet you are on, but I quoted from the MKJV version which uses the word homosexual. So do the NIV, ISV, GNB, CEV, ESV , NASB, NLT, and Amplified versions. So there
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Don't go changing the word to suit your own purposes.
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Actually I didn't change anything, just quoted it word for word.
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The word used in 1Co 6:9 is effeminate, not homosexual. that word isn't used once in the entire Bible.
And effeminate, well, the meaning of that is a little loose for interpretation. It could mean anything from crybabies (male or female) to gay crossdressers. I'm not sure what it means. I'll have to read up on that verse. I'll get back to you all on that
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The relevant word used is sodomite. Effeminate might mean male prostitute or cross-dresser. But the relevant passage for homosexuality in the KJV I highlight in bold:
1Co 6:9 Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind,
compare with MKJV, which translates effeminate to abusers, and the bolded passage above as homosexuals:
1Co 6:9 Do you not know that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived; neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor abusers, nor homosexuals,
Sodomy could also mean a general prohibition against anal sex, which also rules out homosexuality anyway. Either way it is clear and as recognised by most modern translations, that homosexuality is what is being referred to. Even if a person might claim the word for sodomite does not refer to homosexuality, homosexuality is still covered under the heading of fornication. Simply because homosexuals cannot get married and never fit the biblical definition of marriage as between a man and woman. So they are still not inheriting the kingdom of God because they are fornicating.