I'm wondering what people's thoughts on this are. Are you okay with the discrepancies? Do you not see them as discrepancies? What do you think about this?
Since I usually stick with online resources if I'm going to read the Bible in English, I would consult something like the Blue Letter Bible. And would probably go about reading these passages in the following way:
Had the sun yet risen when the women came to the tomb?
Matthew 28:1 says in the Greek "to grow light, to dawn." In other words it was still dark.
Mark 16:2 uses the word
proi, which indicates early in the morning. Specifically it equates to the period of time between 3:00 AM to 6:00 AM. And I don't think it says that the sun was already risen; I think it says that the sun was rising.
Luke 24:1 uses the word
orthros, which means "dawn" or "at early dawn." And of course
John 20:1 just uses a word that means darkness.
How many people came to the tomb?
I also remember different Gospels recording Jesus as feeding different numbers of people with loaves and fish. But one Gospel records both events, and Jesus says (
Matthew 16:9-10), "Don't you remember the five loaves for the five thousand, and how many basketfuls you gathered? Or the seven loaves for the four thousand, and how many basketfuls you gathered?"
Not all of the Gospel accounts record every event of all of the other Gospel accounts.
But for the sake of argument,
John 20:2 records Mary as saying, "[...]
we don't know where they have put him." This
we implies that there were others with Mary when she went to the tomb even though John only explicitly mentions Mary.
Luke 24:1 reads, "Now upon the first day of the week, very early in the morning, they came unto the sepulcher, bringing the spices which they had prepared, and certain others with them." Who were they? And who were these others? Probably those who are mentioned in
Luke 23:55-56, "And the women also, which came with him from Galilee, followed after, and beheld the sepulcher, and how his body was laid. And they returned, and prepared spices and ointments; and rested the sabbath day according to the commandment."
Was the stone removed when the women arrived at the tomb?
The same tense of the Greek
ginomai, which the English version of
Matthew 28:1-2 renders as "there was", is rendered as "had been" in
Matthew 11:21. So had there been an earthquake? Or was there an earthquake? Or was there an earthquake taking place? The English puts it in the past tense. The Greek also seems to put it in the past tense. So I don't believe the earthquake was taking place at the time when the women arrived at the tomb. Regardless, it doesn't say the women had arrived at the tomb; it just says that they went to look at the tomb. No indication is given that they had arrived by the time the narration covers the earthquake event.
Does Mary wish to tell the disciples what had happened?
It's not a question of whether or not Mary wished to tell the disciples what happened, but whether or not the women did tell the disciples what happened. I've chosen to disregard
Mark 16:9-20 for quite a few years now, because of the controversy surrounding it. But even if we end the book on
Mark 16:8 are we to assume that the women said nothing to anyone for the rest of their natural lives? Probably not. I think the logical conclusion is that the women were scared speechless for a while, and Mark focuses on that without explaining what they did say when their fear subsided. Some people think that Mark's original ending is lost to us now. If that is the case, then we have no context to tell us when or if they ever spoke of anything again. But, again, the logical conclusion is that they would speak again after their fear subsided.
After seeing the angels, whom does Mary meet first, Jesus or the disciples?
The word "women" in
Matthew 28:5, 8 seems to refer only to Mary Magdalene and another Mary. However, if we take all of the Gospels together, then the word "women" refers to more than just these two women. And even when the word "women" is not used, it is still implied in
John 20:2 with the word "we" that there is more than just Mary Magdalene in terms of female actors in this story.
I would suggest that Mary Magdalene is not included in the word "women" in
Matthew 28:8 when the women leave the tomb, even if those are the only two women mentioned in the passage. And I would suggest in
Matthew 28:1-5 that
John 20:1-2 occurs where Mary first leaves the tomb and tells Peter and some others. Meanwhile the other women reach the tomb and are filled in by an angel on what happened, and they depart and meet Jesus on the way to telling the disciples.
This last point is really the only big conundrum that needs to be looked at more. The study is quite complex, and I may have made an error. Feel free to pick apart my logic.
I've come across a lot of proposed discrepancies in the Bible, and I've found a lot of solutions. But even if this last one is a discrepancy in the Gospel accounts it doesn't worry me too much. Given the number of agreements between them and their historical veracity, it wouldn't be enough to make me doubt their message. The Gospels were written by human beings - human beings with their own focus and perspective on events.
And talking about perspectives, this reminds me of the time where
Matthew 27 records the color of Jesus' robe as being
kokkinos (i.e. more of a scarlet red) while
John 19 records the robe's color as being
porphyrous (i.e. more of a purple red). But when you look at examples of both of these colors, then you see they are very similar. In fact, they can at times be the same color in modern terms. And what's most important about this is not that it's a discrepancy, but rather that it tells me that this was a real event that was recorded by two different eyewitnesses from different perspectives.