Textual conditions vs The sensible horizon

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oldhermit

Senior Member
Jul 28, 2012
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#21
what we see and hear.
can proof or an outside source, change, thought patterns. but even reason, would ask, what is a book, a person trying to communicate. the brain would need something to think about. you would need to believe there is a god , for a third component
to be reality and how would you get the third component without, a book or person to communicate this to a person that dont have the third component. so what jesus said , in the parable of the sower, is the third component.( word from god ie rhema)
Yes, belief in God is the point. There can be no recognition of triadic structure without belief in God as the causative agent. Revelation is presented in scripture as always coming to man in the same process. Truth always begins in the mind of God and is then conveyed to the mind of man in one form or another as described by the Hebrew writer. In Hebrews 1 the revelation continuum is represented in respect to time as first the imparting of knowledge from God, then to the prophets, then to the Fathers. For us this continuum is God - Jesus - the apostles - then us. There are other places where this continuum is expressed in scripture but this will serve to illustrate the point. This thread id not really about triadic structure but about why we are to represent human experience through revelation of scripture. Without belief in God one's reasoning will be exclusively dyadic. The problem with dyadic reason is that the natural world does not reveal all the truth about man's relationship to this world. If you would like more information on the subject of triadic reality and the nature of God there is an old thread titled Triadic Reality (a discussion between oldhermit and Kenisis). It is a somewhat lengthy thread but you may enjoy it. Feel free to respond to anything on that thread.
 

notuptome

Senior Member
May 17, 2013
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#22
Each man's perspective is his reality. The unsaved man cannot perceive the perspective of the saved man.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
 

oldhermit

Senior Member
Jul 28, 2012
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#23
Each man's perspective is his reality. The unsaved man cannot perceive the perspective of the saved man.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
Each man's perception of reality will always be limited to his own experiences. If individual experience is the standard for determining reality then reality becomes subject. This is not how scripture represents the nature of man's world. Reality is not determined by individual experience by by what God has said about it.
 
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#24
In Romans chapter 8, Paul explains this far better than I ever could.

Paul says we are no longer in the flesh, but in the Spirit. If we live after the flesh we must die, but if we are led by the Spirit we shall live.

When we look at the world through our eyes of flesh we can only see death as our reward, but when we look with the eyes of the Spirit we see life everlasting.

How do we remain in the Spirit and put to death the deeds of the flesh? We daily deny ourselves, take up our cross and follow Jesus Christ. We must submit to the Spirit and allow Him to direct our lives.

As I said Paul explains it much better.

Christ be with you always.
 
M

Mitspa

Guest
#25
Each man's perception of reality will always be limited to his own experiences. If individual experience is the standard for determining reality then reality becomes subject. This is not how scripture represents the nature of man's world. Reality is not determined by individual experience by by what God has said about it.
True...again what is powerful about Gods word is that it will manifest itself in the realm of the senses and strengthen its own position as truth in this world.
 
Jan 27, 2013
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#26
Yes, belief in God is the point. There can be no recognition of triadic structure without belief in God as the causative agent. Revelation is presented in scripture as always coming to man in the same process. Truth always begins in the mind of God and is then conveyed to the mind of man in one form or another as described by the Hebrew writer. In Hebrews 1 the revelation continuum is represented in respect to time as first the imparting of knowledge from God, then to the prophets, then to the Fathers. For us this continuum is God - Jesus - the apostles - then us. There are other places where this continuum is expressed in scripture but this will serve to illustrate the point. This thread id not really about triadic structure but about why we are to represent human experience through revelation of scripture. Without belief in God one's reasoning will be exclusively dyadic. The problem with dyadic reason is that the natural world does not reveal all the truth about man's relationship to this world. If you would like more information on the subject of triadic reality and the nature of God there is an old thread titled Triadic Reality (a discussion between oldhermit and Kenisis). It is a somewhat lengthy thread but you may enjoy it. Feel free to respond to anything on that thread.
even truth has to be reveled , so even truth, would need a meaning to, so by going in the wrong direction , how would you know if your lost.

The thing you have to remember here is that grammar has rules that must be followed or communication become impossible. The Holy Spirit NEVER violates the rules of grammar in the language in which he chooses to convey his message. Otherwise, the message would never be decernable. post 8 (triadic reality)


10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day, and I heard behind me a loud voice like a trumpet11 saying, "Write what you see in a book and send it to the seven churches, to Ephesus and to Smyrna and to Pergamum and to Thyatira and to Sardis and to Philadelphia and to Laodicea."Revelation 1
not in this case, he is told to look and explain in his own words. to what he sees


how many others, wrote and explained in there own word, what god was telling them, or how life turned out by believing in god. etc so how many books were wrote by god, waiting to revel him self to the world through them. etc

vision and dreams are used many time, in the old covenant ,and the men of the old covenant followed, yet never knew why, except by believing in a god. he never had a map, like a book(up to a point in history, ie stone tablets) or an outside source,but wrote without knowing or caring. what it read like or how it would be understood, but gave an account that god spoke to them, or were the book would end up, in a later date,also it would ask the reader why did god pick this man, ie moses could walk in to the royal house hold of egypt.(to keep it short). so these writers follow life and walked in faith. yet when god intervened, we see a change in how these men, walked in daily life with a purpose. yet some done strange thing in actions , like kill or rebuke others that were contradictory to what the believed or taught. with the help of time and other books of the bible. reveled that god had a bigger plan in mind. ie a new covenant. yet if a man , searched by human or grammar rule, will fall by the way side. because these men never had the spirit of decernement to what the did but told the story as true to they understanding and there written skill was never in question to them. they wrote because god told them too.
 
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oldhermit

Senior Member
Jul 28, 2012
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#27
even truth has to be reveled , so even truth, would need a meaning to, so by going in the wrong direction , how would you know if your lost.

The thing you have to remember here is that grammar has rules that must be followed or communication become impossible. The Holy Spirit NEVER violates the rules of grammar in the language in which he chooses to convey his message. Otherwise, the message would never be decernable. post 8 (triadic reality)


10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day, and I heard behind me a loud voice like a trumpet11 saying, "Write what you see in a book and send it to the seven churches, to Ephesus and to Smyrna and to Pergamum and to Thyatira and to Sardis and to Philadelphia and to Laodicea."Revelation 1
not in this case, he is told to look and explain in his own words. to what he sees


how many others, wrote and explained in there own word, what god was telling them, or how life turned out by believing in god. etc so how many books were wrote by god, waiting to revel him self to the world through them. etc

vision and dreams are used many time, in the old covenant ,and the men of the old covenant followed, yet never knew why, except by believing in a god. he never had a map, like a book(up to a point in history, ie stone tablets) or an outside source,but wrote without knowing or caring. what it read like or how it would be understood, but gave an account that god spoke to them, or were the book would end up, in a later date,also it would ask the reader why did god pick this man, ie moses could walk in to the royal house hold of egypt.(to keep it short). so these writers follow life and walked in faith. yet when god intervened, we see a change in how these men, walked in daily life with a purpose. yet some done strange thing in actions , like kill or rebuke others that were contradictory to what the believed or taught. with the help of time and other books of the bible. reveled that god had a bigger plan in mind. ie a new covenant. yet if a man , searched by human or grammar rule, will fall by the way side. because these men never had the spirit of decernement to what the did but told the story as true to they understanding and there written skill was never in question to them. they wrote because god told them too.
Every person who was involved in the process of inscribing revelation in the form of the Bible did so according to his own linguistic skills and styles. This is easily seen in comparing word usage and syntactical structure. For example, Paul's style of writing was vastly different from that of John, but this does not call the content of what they wrote into question. This does not take away from the fact that what they recorded was revealed information. The Bible is nothing more than the exclusive linguistic representation of the mind of God.
 
Jan 27, 2013
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#28
Every person who was involved in the process of inscribing revelation in the form of the Bible did so according to his own linguistic skills and styles. This is easily seen in comparing word usage and syntactical structure. For example, Paul's style of writing was vastly different from that of John, but this does not call the content of what they wrote into question. This does not take away from the fact that what they recorded was revealed information. The Bible is nothing more than the exclusive linguistic representation of the mind of God.
but the old needs the new. to have some clue to history being reveled. translation, put in something that cannot be understood ie at the time of translation i thought the writer meaning was this. the mind of god will not be represented by a man,that was only asked to speak or write, what god told him . only the fact the man spoke or wrote for god. the difference in written skill is in written words only, shows the difference,in god asking different people to convey his message to a changing world. if you knew the mind of god, why read the bible. why write a book. only instructed to do so, is not the same as knowing the mind of god.
sorry the bible is much more than the exclusive linguistic representation of the mind of God. when you ask why god used the mind of man, shows he knew idiots would try worldly meaning to understand there own so called wisdom of foolishness to understand god. and why a new covenant was born.
 
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oldhermit

Senior Member
Jul 28, 2012
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#29
but the old needs the new. to have some clue to history being reveled. translation, put in something that cannot be understood ie at the time of translation i thought the writer meaning was this. the mind of god will not be represented by a man,that was only asked to speak or write, what god told him . only the fact the man spoke or wrote for god. the difference in written skill is in written words only, shows the difference,in god asking different people to convey his message to a changing world. if you knew the mind of god, why read the bible. why write a book. only instructed to do so, is not the same as knowing the mind of god.
sorry the bible is much more than the exclusive linguistic representation of the mind of God. when you ask why god used the mind of man, shows he knew idiots would try worldly meaning to understand there own so called wisdom of foolishness to understand god. and why a new covenant was born.
You really are not understanding what I am talking about are you.
 

oldhermit

Senior Member
Jul 28, 2012
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#33
funny, i hear them same words wrote on any forum on here. yet with an open ended quote.
LOL. Maybe we need to start from the beginning. What do you think the Bible has to say about how we are to represent human history?
 
Jan 27, 2013
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#34
LOL. Maybe we need to start from the beginning. What do you think the Bible has to say about how we are to represent human history?
sorry i am still wondering why you ignored this points.(underlined)
The thing you have to remember here is that grammar has rules that must be followed orcommunication become impossible. The Holy Spirit NEVER violates the rules of grammar in the language in which he chooses to convey his message. Otherwise, the message would never be decernable. post 8 (triadic reality)

to convey a dream and vision is not in grammar rules, to understand the message would need interpretation of dreams.

10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day, and I heard behind me a loud voice like a trumpet11 saying, "Write what you see in a book and send it to the seven churches, to Ephesus and to Smyrna and to Pergamum and to Thyatira and to Sardis and to Philadelphia and to Laodicea."Revelation 1
not in this case, he is told to look and explain in his own words. to what he sees...........here . would he be describing a vision or a dream.

yet some writers of the bible never used words as read as wrote. as the example above.
and came back with this answer. below.

Every person who was involved in the process of inscribing revelation in the form of the Bible did so according to his own linguistic skills and styles. This is easily seen in comparing word usage and syntactical structure. For example, Paul's style of writing was vastly different from that of John, but this does not call the content of what they wrote into question. This does not take away from the fact that what they recorded was revealed information. The Bible is nothing more than the exclusive linguistic representation of the mind of God.

even johns written words are not read as wrote at parts ,in his gospel account. ie having a prophetic meaning.
yet i still asking ,how can it be understood, if spiritual and worldly are not identified or dream and visions not put in a place that need an out side source to understand what is being said. grammar would be like trying to find a needle in a hay stack or idiotic way of finding a spiritual meaning.
 
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oldhermit

Senior Member
Jul 28, 2012
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#35
sorry i am still wondering why you ignored this points.(underlined)
The thing you have to remember here is that grammar has rules that must be followedor communication become impossible. The Holy Spirit NEVER violates the rules of grammar in the language in which he chooses to convey his message. Otherwise, the message would never be decernable. post 8 (triadic reality)
royalscot, I am not trying to be combative and I do not mean to be unkind but I am having a lot of trouble just trying to figure out what you are saying. Many of your sentences simply do not make sense.

That grammar has rules that must be followed or communication become impossible is not just my personal opinion, this is a simple fact of linguistic communication. I do not understand why this idea presents such a problem for you.

The fact remains that scripture consistently demonstrates an adherence to proper grammar and syntax in the original languages. This however has not always been the case with some translations.

to convey a dream and vision is not in grammar rules, to understand the message would need interpretation of dreams.
What is the interpretation of a dream but the imparting of knowledge from the mind of God to the mind of man. This transfer of ideas still must assume a grammatical form in one's mind or the idea cannot be formed. It is a simple fact that the mind cannot conceive that which it does not have the language to describe. When this information is written down it must be recorded according to the standard of grammatical rules that govern the language in which it is conveyed or the information become garbled and useless.


10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day, and I heard behind me a loud voice like a trumpet11 saying, "Write what you see in a book and send it to the seven churches, to Ephesus and to Smyrna and to Pergamum and to Thyatira and to Sardis and to Philadelphia and to Laodicea."Revelation 1
not in this case, he is told to look and explain in his own words. to what he sees...........here . would he be describing a vision or a dream.
I do not get the point you are making here at all. John was commanded to write what God had shown him. What John saw was revelation - information transferred from the mind of God the the mind of John in the form of a vision. John was simply told to record what he was shown, not to interpret what he saw. The book of Revelation is a linguistic representation of what God had shown John in a series of visions. This record was recorded in the form of a linguistic pattern that in every sentence obeys the grammatical structure of the Greek language.

yet some writers of the bible never used words as read as wrote. as the example above.
and came back with this answer. below.
What on earth is this?

Every person who was involved in the process of inscribing revelation in the form of the Bible did so according to his own linguistic skills and styles. This is easily seen in comparing word usage and syntactical structure. For example, Paul's style of writing was vastly different from that of John, but this does not call the content of what they wrote into question. This does not take away from the fact that what they recorded was revealed information. The Bible is nothing more than the exclusive linguistic representation of the mind of God.

even johns written words are not read as wrote at parts ,in his gospel account. ie having a prophetic meaning.
yet i still asking ,how can it be understood, if spiritual and worldly are not identified or dream and visions not put in a place that need an out side source to understand what is being said. grammar would be like trying to find a needle in a hay stack or idiotic way of finding a spiritual meaning
.
You need to clean up you grammar and sentence structure here. I have no idea what you are asking.
 
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Mitspa

Guest
#36
I think maybe he is saying that God uses types, pictures and symbolic type images also...In fact you know the Hebrew letters are all pictures and the Greek very much draws from everyday life and actions to form is words? Maybe that whats he is saying :)
 

oldhermit

Senior Member
Jul 28, 2012
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#37
I think maybe he is saying that God uses types, pictures and symbolic type images also...In fact you know the Hebrew letters are all pictures and the Greek very much draws from everyday life and actions to form is words? Maybe that whats he is saying :)
This is true but types, pictures and symbolic type images must still be converted into a grammatical lexicon in the human mind in order for the idea to be understood, otherwise it cannot be communicated.
 
Jan 27, 2013
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#38

you wrote this on triadic reality forum.
The thing you have to remember here is that grammar has rules that must be followed orcommunication become impossible. The Holy Spirit NEVER violates the rules of grammar in the language in which he chooses to convey his message. Otherwise, the message would never be decernable. post 8 (your quote in the forum (triadic reality) )

i used this against grammar rule.
10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day, and I heard behind me a loud voice like a trumpet11 saying, "Write what you see in a book and send it to the seven churches, to Ephesus and to Smyrna and to Pergamum and to Thyatira and to Sardis and to Philadelphia and to Laodicea."Revelation 1
not in this case, he is told to look and explain in his own words. to what he sees...........here . would he be describing a vision or a dream.

yet some writers of the bible never used words as read as wrote. as the example above.


when you answered by the my quote with this

Every person who was involved in the process of inscribing revelation in the form of the Bible did so according to his own linguistic skills and styles. This is easily seen in comparing word usage and syntactical structure. For example, Paul's style of writing was vastly different from that of John, but this does not call the content of what they wrote into question. This does not take away from the fact that what they recorded was revealed information. The Bible is nothing more than the exclusive linguistic representation of the mind of God.(your quote)

then i answered with this quote

even johns written words are not read as wrote at parts ,in his gospel account. ie having a prophetic meaning.
yet i still asking ,how can it be understood, if spiritual and worldly are not identified or dream and visions not put in a place that need an out side source to understand what is being said. grammar would be like trying to find a needle in a hay stack or idiotic way of finding a spiritual meaning.

happy now lol
 
M

Mitspa

Guest
#39
This is true but types, pictures and symbolic type images must still be converted into a grammatical lexicon in the human mind in order for the idea to be understood, otherwise it cannot be communicated.
Well you know before the written word, those in faith offered the blood sacrifice of a clean animal...Im sure they was some oral words that went with it, but the Lamb for sure spoke a volume about things to come...

Not trying trying to argue at all...I just like your topic and like a little deeper look at things :)
 

oldhermit

Senior Member
Jul 28, 2012
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#40

you wrote this on triadic reality forum.
The thing you have to remember here is that grammar has rules that must be followed orcommunication become impossible. The Holy Spirit NEVER violates the rules of grammar in the language in which he chooses to convey his message. Otherwise, the message would never be decernable. post 8 (your quote in the forum (triadic reality) )

i used this against grammar rule.
10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day, and I heard behind me a loud voice like a trumpet11 saying, "Write what you see in a book and send it to the seven churches, to Ephesus and to Smyrna and to Pergamum and to Thyatira and to Sardis and to Philadelphia and to Laodicea."Revelation 1
not in this case, he is told to look and explain in his own words. to what he sees...........here . would he be describing a vision or a dream.

yet some writers of the bible never used words as read as wrote. as the example above.


when you answered by the my quote with this

Every person who was involved in the process of inscribing revelation in the form of the Bible did so according to his own linguistic skills and styles. This is easily seen in comparing word usage and syntactical structure. For example, Paul's style of writing was vastly different from that of John, but this does not call the content of what they wrote into question. This does not take away from the fact that what they recorded was revealed information. The Bible is nothing more than the exclusive linguistic representation of the mind of God.(your quote)

then i answered with this quote

even johns written words are not read as wrote at parts ,in his gospel account. ie having a prophetic meaning.
yet i still asking ,how can it be understood, if spiritual and worldly are not identified or dream and visions not put in a place that need an out side source to understand what is being said. grammar would be like trying to find a needle in a hay stack or idiotic way of finding a spiritual meaning.

happy now lol
WHAT???????????