What's the difference between Murder and Biblical Killing?

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Elijah19

Guest
#1
This may be a hot button issue here, but I'm honestly confused and I need answers regardless...

I think I may be having a problem with interpretation here. Let's contrast these two verses (they are the same, but from different translations).

Exodus 20:13 (KJV) - thou shalt not kill.

Exodus 20:13 (NIV) - You shall not murder.

OK, here's the thing. If we take it from the KJV's perspective, then all killing is wrong period. Yet in the Bible, God often ordered the Israelites to kill foreign peoples in order to punish them for their sins and drive them out, ordered the death penalties on those that deserved such punishment, and permitted killing for certain instances of in self-defense.

However, if we take it from the NIV's perspective, the word "murder" is used instead of "killing." This seems to suggest that the killing of a person is usually wrong except under extenuating circumstances (i.e. those allowed/commanded by the Bible).

Now I personally know a lot of Military Veterans in my life. They are good people, and they have killed for their country, family, freedom, safety, and etc. Often they had to do some extremely violent "action" (so to speak) from what they tell me.

Yet if we take it from the KJV's translation, they are sinful in what they did. But if we take it from the NIV's translation, what they did is justified because then we can reason that the word "murder" does not necessarily cover all instances of a human killing another human. Otherwise, the Bible would be contradicting itself when it ordered men like Joshua to drive out peoples and kill them for their sinfulness.

Understand, I am not trying to stir hot coals here or anything, because I know somebody's gonna come after me on this one, but I really have only three questions:

1.) What is the Biblical difference between "killing" and "murder"?

2.) If there is no difference, then how does this account for the use of military force, capital punishment, and judgement in the Old Testament per God's command?

3.) Did the translators of the KJV (along with some other translations) wrongfully substitute the word "killing" for the word "murder" when they wrote it?
 
K

Kaycie

Guest
#2
Despite which word it is translated to, killing is taking life by God's authority and permission- such as police, judges, and armies that He appointed on the earth. Murder is taking human life without God appointing you to do so.
 
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honeybee

Guest
#3
My Bible said Thou shall not kill. The commandments, but in the Bible you see it say to be put to death for such like with incest. That can be very terrible to put some one to death and not ask for forgiveness. I believe that we all die, because of Adam and Eve's original sin. Incest stop breathing if they conceive a child. I believe it is for God to take life not any one else, but it is in the bible with a few laws.
 
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Tintin

Guest
#4
Despite which word it is translated to, killing is taking life by God's authority and permission- such as police, judges, and armies that He appointed on the earth. Murder is taking human life without God appointing you to do so.
Murder is also premeditated and done in cold blood. Killing is different. The correct translation is 'You shall not murder', not 'You shall not kill'.
 

JaumeJ

Senior Member
Jul 2, 2011
21,195
6,509
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#5
From what I understand, there is no difference. A prime example of what you have deemed as "Biblical killing" would be King David. He was not allowed to build the house of the Lord because he had waged many battles, killing many, not to mention how he arranged for Uriah, Bathsheba's husband, to be ordered to the front of fierce battlethen abandoned there alone, only to be killed so David could take Bathsheba as his own. Now David was bloved, an it is clear by the Psalms he knew grace intimately.
 

Dan58

Senior Member
Nov 13, 2013
1,991
337
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#6

Murder is killing without cause, its taking an innocent life, while killing is allowed as a means of criminal punishment or self-defense. There's a big difference. The proper translation of the Hebrew "ratsach" "Thou shalt not kill" (Exodus 20:13 kjv) means not to commit murder. "But if any man hate his neighbour, and lie in wait for him, and rise up against him, and smite him mortally that he die, and fleeth into one of these cities:Then the elders of his city shall send and fetch him thence, and deliver him into the hand of the avenger of blood, that he may die" (Deuteronomy 19:11-12)
 

JaumeJ

Senior Member
Jul 2, 2011
21,195
6,509
113
#7
Murder is killing without cause, what about jealosy, greed, power and so much more. Killing in the Word, is murder, and this is why in the former law, cities of refuge were provided for the accidental death of another, so the avenger could not take revenge on one who did not deliberately kill, while if it was with forthought and malice, puniishment was requiired. I realize there is a great difference between accidental or negligent homicide and deliberated, but it is still homicide, murder, killing.