Is poligamy a sin?

[ivanc0]

(Exodus 21:7-11 NLT)

When a man sells his daughter as a slave, she will not be freed at the end of six years as the men are. If she does not please the man who bought her, he may allow her to be bought back again. But he is not allowed to sell her to foreigners, since he is the one who broke the contract with her. And if the slave girl's owner arranges for her to marry his son, he may no longer treat her as a slave girl, but he must treat her as his daughter. If he himself marries her and then takes another wife, he may not reduce her food or clothing or fail to sleep with her as his wife. If he fails in any of these three ways, she may leave as a free woman without making any payment.


What????
A man could sell his daughter? and He has to please the men? cook well? or please the men in the bed?
but a man can not sell the poor girl to aliens just to Israelites, is this a sex slave Moses law?

look at the bit "takes another wife
God is implicit in accepting polygamous marriages, and they rule some rules on them. so Moses law does sanction polygamy as a Gods Practice.

Do not insult me please I did not wrote that verse of the bible.

 

[maxwel]

So why are you bringing this up?

You want to practice polygamy?

Maybe you're a Muslim?

 

[Angela53510]

Read the words of Jesus and Paul on polygamy.

"Let deacons each be the husband of one wife,managing their children and their own households well." 1 Tim. 3:12

In this verse the word "deacons" in the Greek is διάκονοι (dakonoi). It means servant. So although it does refer to a church office, it also refers to all of us, since Jesus expected us to be servants. So clearly, no polygamy in the New Testament.

"He answered, “Have you not read that he who created them from the beginning made them male and female, [SUP]5 [/SUP]and said, ‘Therefore a man shall leave his father and his mother and hold fast to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh’? [SUP]6 [/SUP]So they are no longer two but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let not man separate.” [SUP]7 [/SUP]They said to him, “Why then did Moses command one to give a certificate of divorce and to send her away?” [SUP]8 [/SUP]He said to them, “Because of your hardness of heart Moses allowed you to divorce your wives, but from the beginning it was not so. [SUP]9 [/SUP]And I say to you: whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery.” Matt 19:4-9

Jesus clearly says here that marriage is between two people, a man and a wife. Divorce is because of the hardness of people's hearts, and remains that way.

Polygamy in the Old Testament was as much for the women as the men. In a warring society, men were limited, and women needed someone to protect and provide for them. So men took more than one wife. When the conquest of Canaan was over, that stopped, although some people continued to practice it.

Jesus makes it clear that from the beginning, God's plan was one woman and one man. Don't try and rip passages out of their biblical and cultural content and apply them to today.

 

[MarcR]

Both England and The USA practiced indenture for debt resolution until the early 19th century.

Israels practice of bonded servitude was much less odious than that of the rest of the world; because of the protections God gave to Israelite bond servants.

Is our current system of bankruptcy law much more equitable?

 

[ivanc0]

So why are you bringing this up?

You want to practice polygamy?

Maybe you're a Muslim?

Why not? There are many Americans that practice polygamy today. and Mormons did practised it in the 1900.

Is a repulsive practice today,.... but when that law changed?

I am not a Muslim.

 

[ivanc0]

Read the words of Jesus and Paul on polygamy.

"Let deacons each be the husband of one wife,managing their children and their own households well." 1 Tim. 3:12

In this verse the word "deacons" in the Greek is διάκονοι (dakonoi). It means servant. So although it does refer to a church office, it also refers to all of us, since Jesus expected us to be servants. So clearly, no polygamy in the New Testament.

"He answered, “Have you not read that he who created them from the beginning made them male and female, [SUP]5 [/SUP]and said, ‘Therefore a man shall leave his father and his mother and hold fast to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh’? [SUP]6 [/SUP]So they are no longer two but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let not man separate.” [SUP]7 [/SUP]They said to him, “Why then did Moses command one to give a certificate of divorce and to send her away?” [SUP]8 [/SUP]He said to them, “Because of your hardness of heart Moses allowed you to divorce your wives, but from the beginning it was not so. [SUP]9 [/SUP]And I say to you: whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery.” Matt 19:4-9

Jesus clearly says here that marriage is between two people, a man and a wife. Divorce is because of the hardness of people's hearts, and remains that way.

Polygamy in the Old Testament was as much for the women as the men. In a warring society, men were limited, and women needed someone to protect and provide for them. So men took more than one wife. When the conquest of Canaan was over, that stopped, although some people continued to practice it.

Jesus makes it clear that from the beginning, God's plan was one woman and one man. Don't try and rip passages out of their biblical and cultural content and apply them to today.

Please note is a rule to the Leaders of the church not to the members. There is some people that say that polygamy was practised in the Jew community in Jesus times..... but when this practice was banned?

Many christians did practised polygamy specially in the USA. (and some still do)

Clearly exodus 21, shows that "God" has not problem with the practice.

“Because of your hardness of heart Moses allowed you to divorce your wives, but from the beginning it was not so. [SUP]9 [/SUP]And I say to you: whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery.”

Talks about divorce not more wives. you could have many wives and not divorce them.

 

[ivanc0]

Read the words of Jesus and Paul on polygamy.

"Let deacons each be the husband of one wife,managing their children and their own households well." 1 Tim. 3:12

In this verse the word "deacons" in the Greek is διάκονοι (dakonoi). It means servant. So although it does refer to a church office, it also refers to all of us, since Jesus expected us to be servants. So clearly, no polygamy in the New Testament.

"He answered, “Have you not read that he who created them from the beginning made them male and female, [SUP]5 [/SUP]and said, ‘Therefore a man shall leave his father and his mother and hold fast to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh’? [SUP]6 [/SUP]So they are no longer two but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let not man separate.” [SUP]7 [/SUP]They said to him, “Why then did Moses command one to give a certificate of divorce and to send her away?” [SUP]8 [/SUP]He said to them, “Because of your hardness of heart Moses allowed you to divorce your wives, but from the beginning it was not so. [SUP]9 [/SUP]And I say to you: whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery.” Matt 19:4-9

Jesus clearly says here that marriage is between two people, a man and a wife. Divorce is because of the hardness of people's hearts, and remains that way.

Polygamy in the Old Testament was as much for the women as the men. In a warring society, men were limited, and women needed someone to protect and provide for them. So men took more than one wife. When the conquest of Canaan was over, that stopped, although some people continued to practice it.

Jesus makes it clear that from the beginning, God's plan was one woman and one man. Don't try and rip passages out of their biblical and cultural content and apply them to today.

[SUP]9 [/SUP]And I say to you: whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery.” Matt 19:4-9

So Jesus did change the LAW OF MOSES, and explicitly banned polygamy.

Thanks.

 

[FridaysChild]

Here in America we've grown past and repented for the sin of enslaving people.

Although there are still some people in Africa who enslave their own to this day. Oh and of course, some extreme Muslims who enslave and rape young girls.

Oops. That wasn't very PC of me, was it?

 

[ivanc0]

Here in America we've grown past and repented for the sin of enslaving people.

Although there are still some people in Africa who enslave their own to this day. Oh and of course, some extreme Muslims who enslave and rape young girls.

Oops. That wasn't very PC of me, was it?

The question is why "God" came down to meet this people in this poor standards? and did not correct them.

 

[p_rehbein]

what does polygamy and slavery have to do with each other? Unless the marriages are FORCED, which under certain beliefs they are not, the wives are not slaves are they?

Now, I believe it is a sinful practice. But consider this. If we are going to allow same sex marriage which is an abomination in the eyes of God, don't folks who want two or more wives have a right to practice their desires?

Just saying

 

[MarcR]

It appears evident that you do not believe or believe in God. If you truly believed that God, in fact, created all that is; you would also recognize that you lack the authority to critique His methods or standards.

If you honestly consider your question from a believer's point of view you would see that no believer could concede your authority to hold God accountable.

 

[twotwo]

(Exodus 21:7-11 NLT)

When a man sells his daughter as a slave, she will not be freed at the end of six years as the men are. If she does not please the man who bought her, he may allow her to be bought back again. But he is not allowed to sell her to foreigners, since he is the one who broke the contract with her. And if the slave girl's owner arranges for her to marry his son, he may no longer treat her as a slave girl, but he must treat her as his daughter. If he himself marries her and then takes another wife, he may not reduce her food or clothing or fail to sleep with her as his wife. If he fails in any of these three ways, she may leave as a free woman without making any payment.


What????
A man could sell his daughter? and He has to please the men? cook well? or please the men in the bed?
but a man can not sell the poor girl to aliens just to Israelites, is this a sex slave Moses law?

look at the bit "takes another wife
God is implicit in accepting polygamous marriages, and they rule some rules on them. so Moses law does sanction polygamy as a Gods Practice.

Do not insult me please I did not wrote that verse of the bible.

You understand now why it is called the "OLD TESTAMENT".

 

[phil112]

[h=2]Is poligamy a sin?[/h]

You have to ask?

 

[phil112]

The question is why "God" came down to meet this people in this poor standards? and did not correct them.

It is not your place to question God. You're venturing in territory that will get you in trouble. Our concern is how He wants us to live. None of your business to question how He treated His people in the past.

 

[valiant]

(Exodus 21:7-11 NLT)

When a man sells his daughter as a slave, she will not be freed at the end of six years as the men are. If she does not please the man who bought her, he may allow her to be bought back again. But he is not allowed to sell her to foreigners, since he is the one who broke the contract with her. And if the slave girl's owner arranges for her to marry his son, he may no longer treat her as a slave girl, but he must treat her as his daughter. If he himself marries her and then takes another wife, he may not reduce her food or clothing or fail to sleep with her as his wife. If he fails in any of these three ways, she may leave as a free woman without making any payment.


What????
A man could sell his daughter? and He has to please the men? cook well? or please the men in the bed?
but a man can not sell the poor girl to aliens just to Israelites, is this a sex slave Moses law?

look at the bit "takes another wife
God is implicit in accepting polygamous marriages, and they rule some rules on them. so Moses law does sanction polygamy as a Gods Practice.

Do not insult me please I did not wrote that verse of the bible.

this is referring to a habiru contract. the habiru were wandering nomads. they would hire themselves out as slaves for seven years. then they had to be released. but if they sold their daughters as slaves she had the rights of a secondary wife. this was the custom of the time outside Israel as well. the owner could sell her back to her family, but must not sell her to foreigners. she has to all intents and purposes become an Israelite.

God is not saying this is right. He is saying that if an Israelite chooses to buy a habiru slavegirl she must be treated rightly. He is legislating in regard to their customs which were not of God's law for the sake of the girl.

as Jesus said in another case, 'for your hardness of heart He gave you this Law.'

 

[peacefulbeliever]

1 Cor. 7:2,3

Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband.Let the husband render unto the wife due benevolence: and likewise also the wife unto the husband.

Let every [each] man . . . every [each] woman her OWN husband.

 

[Grandpa]

My wife says yes.

 

[Jason0047]

(Exodus 21:7-11 NLT)

When a man sells his daughter as a slave, she will not be freed at the end of six years as the men are. If she does not please the man who bought her, he may allow her to be bought back again. But he is not allowed to sell her to foreigners, since he is the one who broke the contract with her. And if the slave girl's owner arranges for her to marry his son, he may no longer treat her as a slave girl, but he must treat her as his daughter. If he himself marries her and then takes another wife, he may not reduce her food or clothing or fail to sleep with her as his wife. If he fails in any of these three ways, she may leave as a free woman without making any payment.


What????
A man could sell his daughter? and He has to please the men? cook well? or please the men in the bed?
but a man can not sell the poor girl to aliens just to Israelites, is this a sex slave Moses law?

look at the bit "takes another wife
God is implicit in accepting polygamous marriages, and they rule some rules on them. so Moses law does sanction polygamy as a Gods Practice
Do not insult me please I did not wrote that verse of the bible.

There are two problems here. One, Christians are supposed to be in support of God's Word and they are not supposed to find fault with it. For the words of the Lord are pure words, as silver tried in a furnace and purified seven times (Psalm 12:6). For all Scripture is given by inspiration of God and it is profitable for doctrine, reproof, correction, and training in righteousness so that the man of God may be perfect (2 Timothy 3:16-17). For the Word is how one gets their faith. For faith comes by hearing and hearing the Word of God (Romans 10:17). I mean, have you ever tried asking God for understanding on such a passage? (Jeremiah 33:3). Two, you are making huge leaps of assumption concerning Exodus 21:7-11 (that is not specifically stated in the text).

"And if a man sell his daughter to be a maidservant, she shall not go out as the menservants do.

If she please not her master, who hath betrothed her to himself, then shall he let her be redeemed: to sell her unto a strange nation he shall have no power, seeing he hath dealt deceitfully with her. And if he have betrothed her unto his son, he shall deal with her after the manner of daughters. If he take him another wife; her food, her raiment, and her duty of marriage, shall he not diminish. And if he do not these three unto her, then shall she go out free without money." (Exodus 21:7-11)

Alright, let's look at the passage above here line by line.

"And if a man sell his daughter to be a maidservant, she shall not go out as the menservants do

There is no indication here that she was being sold against her will here. This text says nothing as to her choice involved. First, it says she was sold as a maid servant and not as a wife. She first would be a servant to help her family out financially with the potential that she could marry this man (If she agreed). For you have to realize that women back then wanted to marry desperately so as to have children (a family), and financial protection (i.e. to be provided for). In order for the text to say that she was sold against her will it would have to specifically state that fact. In other words, the text does not say.... "And if a man sell his daughter to be a maidservant against her will" But does the passage say that? No. Nor does it say she was being sold as a wife, either. We also have to realize that her williness to be a maidservant was to help her family financiallly that she loved, too. For the man would have to pay a dowry in order to be married to her (If she chose to marry to him). But you have to know that she wants to be married because there were few opportunities to do so (so as to have children) and it would help her family.

If she does not please the man who bought her, he may allow her to be bought back again. But he is not allowed to sell her to foreigners, since he is the one who broke the contract with her.

Again, one has to assume that she is being a sex slave in this text so as for it to say that. Nowhere does this text say that she was forced against her will to please the man in bed, or forced against her will to cook for him. One has to add words to the above text in order for it to say that. However, it is in the woman's best interest to please the man because she was willing to go along with the contract so as to LATER be betrothed to him so as to have children and so as to help her family (that raised her) financially. What this text says is that if he is not pleased with her, he can sell her back to her family but he could not sell her to some foreign country. Meaning, if the marriage to this woman was not working out like he had hoped, Moses allowed for a bill of divorcement because of the hardness of their hearts (As Jesus talks about).

But she was not sold as a sex slave. She was sold first as a maid servant and then had the option to be married to him they liked each other.

If she please not her master, who hath betrothed her to himself

For this is the point within the text where they both decide above if they are to marry or not. Before that point, she was just a maid servant. How do we know? Because it says in the text.... "And if he have betrothed her unto his son, he shall deal with her after the manner of daughters" Meaning, she is first sold as a maid servant (being in complete agreement that she is being sold so as to help out her family's debt because she loves them and wants to help them). Then later she has the option to either marry the man who bought her (if he is interested) and or to marry the son of the man who bought her (if he is interested). There is no forced marriage going on here.

If he take him another

wife; her food, her raiment, and her duty of marriage, shall he not diminish. And if he do not these three unto her, then shall she go out free without money."

Verse 10 is dealing with the man committing adultery by taking a second wife thereby disolving his first marriage in God's eyes. However, according to the contract, her food, raiment, and duty of marriage (to provide for her financially), were not supposed to diminish, though. In verse 11, it says if he stopped providing financially for his first wife that he divorced by taking another wife, she could go free as a maid servant.

 

[FridaysChild]

The question is why "God" came down to meet this people in this poor standards? and did not correct them.

your reply makes little to no sense

No matter though, I can see from my brethren here and their additional postings that there is more confusion that just this reply. I defer to their wisdom.

 

[Jason0047]

For this is the point within the text where they both decide above if they are to marry or not. Before that point, she was just a maid servant. How do we know? Because it says in the text.... "And if he have betrothed her unto his son, he shall deal with her after the manner of daughters" Meaning, she is first sold as a maid servant (being in complete agreement that she is being sold so as to help out her family's debt because she loves them and wants to help them). Then later she has the option to either marry the man who bought her (if he is interested) and or to marry the son of the man who bought her (if he is interested). There is no forced marriage going on here.

Edit:

Wanted to clarify what I said here. Verse 8 was the point where he married her (and not the point where they decide to marry). Sorry. I wrote that the wrong way. Anyways, before that point, she was just a maidservant. However, she had the option to marry the man's son instead as seen in verse 9. So there is no forced marriage going on here.

Thank you.

And may God bless you.

I hope this helps to resolve the problem you are having with this passage.