I was reading in the Ezekiel 10 how the glory of God departed from Solomon's Temple. The fact that the Spirit of God was not present in the temple explains how Nebuchadnezzar's men were able in 586 B.C. to destroy the temple completely, including the Holy of Holies without divine judgement.
That brought up somthing I have wondered about. Why is it that some Christian writers refer to the Glory of God as the "shekinah glory" when the word shekinah is no where to be found in the OT?
My understanding is that it has its roots in the Jewish writings such as the Targums and the Kaballah which is Jewish magic.
That brought up somthing I have wondered about. Why is it that some Christian writers refer to the Glory of God as the "shekinah glory" when the word shekinah is no where to be found in the OT?
My understanding is that it has its roots in the Jewish writings such as the Targums and the Kaballah which is Jewish magic.