Genesis 1 and 2 - Taken Literally or Figuratively?

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Aug 29, 2015
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#21
Yes and on your basis God also told him to write that yom (day, period of time) meant A PERIOD OF LIGHT. Nowhere in Gen 1 does it say it means anything else. But why worry about God's definition when we can make up one of our own?
It says then there was darkness,that was the first DAY!!
 
Aug 29, 2015
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#22
It says then there was darkness,that was the first DAY!!
Also it's not Gods definition according to you it's Moses's definition,Gods word but written by Moses,a man who you say might not of been able to describe things as God instructed him to!!!!!
 

valiant

Senior Member
Mar 22, 2015
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#23
It says then there was darkness,that was the first DAY!!

LOL you people with your unreliable translations. The Hebrew says nothing of the kind. It says -

and God called the light day, and the darkness He called night, and the evening and the morning was of the first day.

Prior to the light coming the first event had no evening. There was just pure unadulterated darkness. Thus the unbiased person would see evening as referring to the end of the period of light which is what evening ALWAYS means. The period of day began with dawn and ended with evening.

Day is mentioned twice in the same verse and defined in the first mention. The unbiased person would see it as meaning the same in both cases.

Thus he explains that the previous darkness was called 'night' (NOT evening) and that the period of light, with an evening ending it and a morning (dawn) beginning it, was called day (period of light) and was the first period of light.

You just dogmatise on the basis of your preconceived conceptions and IGNORE what it literally says.
 
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shotgunner

Guest
#24
I did not get that from shotgunner.

I got him as saying he takes it literal. But we can not conrehend everything that went on in those seven days,


if one looks at creation, and all it entails. it take faith in a perfect and all powerful God to believe he could put that all together in 6 days.
Thank you! That is exactly what I meant. I have never advocated that we are not to understand God or incapable of understanding.

I am beginning to think the OP just likes to argue.
 

valiant

Senior Member
Mar 22, 2015
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#25
Also it's not Gods definition according to you it's Moses's definition,Gods word but written by Moses,a man who you say might not of been able to describe things as God instructed him to!!!!!
LOL now you are wriggling.

Moses' words are God's words, but God did not dictate them. They came through revelation. Moses said exactly what God wanted him to say.
 

valiant

Senior Member
Mar 22, 2015
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#26
I did not get that from shotgunner.

I got him as saying he takes it literal. But we can not conrehend everything that went on in those seven days,


if one looks at creation, and all it entails. it take faith in a perfect and all powerful God to believe he could put that all together in 6 days.
But all of us believe that God COULD have created in six twenty four hour days. But the Hebrew does not say so. Indeed the Hebrews knew nothing of a twenty four hour day. But Genesis 1 says that DAY means period of light. The author has the right to assume that we will accept his word for it not change it to mean a twenty four hour day, especially as days as known to men were not fixed until the fourth yom.

I accept what GOD says not what twenty first century Americans say.
 
Sep 16, 2014
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#27
The book of Genesis begins with "In the beginning" whereby the universe is being created at the very beginning, out of nothing. From the an empty space and void to something. How marvelous is God's creation, eh? Then, God began to put things in from Day 1 till Day 6, He created the animals and mankind. Day 7, He rested.

Do you think we can take each description from Day 1 to Day 7 literally or figuratively? Or, they are merely symbol of seven days in a faith statement, implying progressive creativity and careful order? Or, in fact God created all these in a day and for us to grasp it, it's separated into 6 days of creation?

What do you think?
When I have time I'll consider posting a collection of quotes from Gen. 1 later in the OT and in the NT. All applications of those are used to teach literal doctrines. If not taken literally, then those inspired writers would have been making figurative lesson out of figurative scriptures, leaving their doctrines subject to interpretation based on.....what?

Jesus used Genesis 1:27 (KJV) So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them. to teach this: Mark 10:4-9 (KJV)
[SUP]4 [/SUP] And they said, Moses suffered to write a bill of divorcement, and to put her away.
[SUP]5 [/SUP] And Jesus answered and said unto them,
For the hardness of your heart he wrote you this precept.
[SUP]6 [/SUP] But from the beginning of the creation God made them male and female.
[SUP]7 [/SUP] For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and cleave to his wife;
[SUP]8 [/SUP] And they twain shall be one flesh: so then they are no more twain, but one flesh.
[SUP]9 [/SUP] What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.

Jesus took that fact literally, fact based upon fact. Genesis 1 is an "abstract" introduction to the creation week, quite general in nature with little detail. Then, in chapter 2 we get a topical focus giving more details about man's part. There we get more detail of Eve being made out of already created flesh from Adam. That's where Jesus based his statement of the two being "one flesh".

There are many fine examples throughout the Bible that once read, the reader will realize the creation account was in fact taken very literally, and ought to be taken that way now. Gen. 1-3 is the foundation of the need for Jesus Christ to come down to men to save us. If all that was figurative, then salvation itself would be figurative of something else.

I've already tasted of that, so none can persuade me any of it is metaphysical, or a figurative end to itself.

When something in the Bible, or really any form of literature, contains figurative statements, there is a clear indication of that in play, unless the whole piece is figurative and obviously so, and if a sensible writing, will supply the intended meaning of something figurative. Otherwise the matter remains a pointless mystery for the reader to figure out without a real clue, like writing a murder mystery novel without revealing who did it.

By the way, in the beginning the earth days were a bit shorter, the earth having been slowing it's axial revolution. We're about 140 million years away from that making 25 hour days. The measure of days and nights has been effectively unchanged except for a really expensive atomic clock. Consider what purpose would God have had in using that measure for creation to stand for eons per day, and eons per night, yet change to days and night expressed in terms of 24 hour days. If he made days and night lasting millions of years each, then when after creation did he start the earth spinning so much faster?

Since God created time as we know it, based on actions of heavenly bodies, then he must be outside of time, independent of time. So it is he can easily regard one of our thousand year history slots as a mere day in his existence. Since God is not author of confusion, he would not then deceive us, indicating that one of our days might have been a million years long during creation week.
 
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shotgunner

Guest
#28
LOL now you are wriggling.

Moses' words are God's words, but God did not dictate them. They came through revelation. Moses said exactly what God wanted him to say.
That may be so but I've never seen it as God saying "now write this" as in giving dictation either. I've always imagined the writer being caught up in the Spirit of God and seeing a vision and then writing about it. That doesn't mean however that other text and verbal history couldn't have been used also. Take for example the book of Revelation. Some of that I think is John trying to describe events that he saw while in the Spirit. Maybe that's not the case with Genesis, I just put it out there as something to ponder.

Here is a thought. Moses asked to see God's face but God showed him his backside as he passed by instead. Is it possible that what Moses actually saw was the actual past, not God's rear end but the what happened before?
 

valiant

Senior Member
Mar 22, 2015
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#29
That may be so but I've never seen it as God saying "now write this" as in giving dictation either. I've always imagined the writer being caught up in the Spirit of God and seeing a vision and then writing about it. That doesn't mean however that other text and verbal history couldn't have been used also. Take for example the book of Revelation. Some of that I think is John trying to describe events that he saw while in the Spirit. Maybe that's not the case with Genesis, I just put it out there as something to ponder.

Here is a thought. Moses asked to see God's face but God showed him his backside as he passed by instead. Is it possible that what Moses actually saw was the actual past, not God's rear end but the what happened before?
I doubt it. In my view you are building in something that is not there. The basic idea is that Moses saw the tail end of His glory. It says that he saw God's glory, not that he saw a form and shape.
 
Dec 18, 2013
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#30
Yes it is literal. This is supported by other verses either indirectly by implication or quite directly.

Exodus 20:11

[SUP]11 [/SUP]For in six days the Lord made heaven and earth, the sea, and all that in them is, and rested the seventh day: wherefore the Lord blessed the sabbath day, and hallowed it.
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
#31
Realy,did u read #11 ? He said moses wrote genesis,he got the revelation from God!!!!!

I do not think we will know either way until eternity..

It is commonly held view moses wrote all 5 books.. Some believe he copied some fro books brought through from the flood by noah.

Either way, this should not be a point of contention, because it can not be proven either way.
 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
#32
But all of us believe that God COULD have created in six twenty four hour days. But the Hebrew does not say so. Indeed the Hebrews knew nothing of a twenty four hour day. But Genesis 1 says that DAY means period of light. The author has the right to assume that we will accept his word for it not change it to mean a twenty four hour day, especially as days as known to men were not fixed until the fourth yom.

I accept what GOD says not what twenty first century Americans say.
The hebrews DID say 24 hour day.

God proved it when he told moses and Israel to obey the Sabbath. The 7th day, Because in 6 days he created the heavens and earth.


God is not a god of confusion, He would not say it was a 24 hour day, unless it was.
 
Aug 29, 2015
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#33

I do not think we will know either way until eternity..

It is commonly held view moses wrote all 5 books.. Some believe he copied some fro books brought through from the flood by noah.

Either way, this should not be a point of contention, because it can not be proven either way.
thats the bravest statement I've read on this site,how refreshing to hear you say it cannot be proven either way,I wish other es on this site would be as brave and truthful as you,I have much respect for you,you belive in the bible,god,Jesus,trinity,etc by faith alone,most contraversal subjects on here have people twisting scripture all over the place to meet there ridiculous claims,thank you for answering
 
Aug 29, 2015
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#34
The hebrews DID say 24 hour day.

God proved it when he told moses and Israel to obey the Sabbath. The 7th day, Because in 6 days he created the heavens and earth.


God is not a god of confusion, He would not say it was a 24 hour day, unless it was.
Great answer
 
Aug 29, 2015
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#35
When I have time I'll consider posting a collection of quotes from Gen. 1 later in the OT and in the NT. All applications of those are used to teach literal doctrines. If not taken literally, then those inspired writers would have been making figurative lesson out of figurative scriptures, leaving their doctrines subject to interpretation based on.....what?

Jesus used Genesis 1:27 (KJV) So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them. to teach this: Mark 10:4-9 (KJV)
[SUP]4 [/SUP] And they said, Moses suffered to write a bill of divorcement, and to put her away.
[SUP]5 [/SUP] And Jesus answered and said unto them,
For the hardness of your heart he wrote you this precept.
[SUP]6 [/SUP] But from the beginning of the creation God made them male and female.
[SUP]7 [/SUP] For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and cleave to his wife;
[SUP]8 [/SUP] And they twain shall be one flesh: so then they are no more twain, but one flesh.
[SUP]9 [/SUP] What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.

Jesus took that fact literally, fact based upon fact.Genesis 1 is an "abstract" introduction to the creation week, quite general in nature with little detail. Then, in chapter 2 we get a topical focus giving more details about man's part. There we get more detail of Eve being made out of already created flesh from Adam. That's where Jesus based his statement of the two being "one flesh".

There are many fine examples throughout the Bible that once read, the reader will realize the creation account was in fact taken very literally, and ought to be taken that way now. Gen. 1-3 is the foundation of the need for Jesus Christ to come down to men to save us. If all that was figurative, then salvation itself would be figurative of something else.

I've already tasted of that, so none can persuade me any of it is metaphysical, or a figurative end to itself.

When something in the Bible, or really any form of literature, contains figurative statements, there is a clear indication of that in play, unless the whole piece is figurative and obviously so, and if a sensible writing, will supply the intended meaning of something figurative. Otherwise the matter remains a pointless mystery for the reader to figure out without a real clue, like writing a murder mystery novel without revealing who did it.

By the way, in the beginning the earth days were a bit shorter, the earth having been slowing it's axial revolution. We're about 140 million years away from that making 25 hour days. The measure of days and nights has been effectively unchanged except for a really expensive atomic clock. Consider what purpose would God have had in using that measure for creation to stand for eons per day, and eons per night, yet change to days and night expressed in terms of 24 hour days. If he made days and night lasting millions of years each, then when after creation did he start the earth spinning so much faster?

Since God created time as we know it, based on actions of heavenly bodies, then he must be outside of time, independent of time. So it is he can easily regard one of our thousand year history slots as a mere day in his existence. Since God is not author of confusion, he would not then deceive us, indicating that one of our days might have been a million years long during creation week.
i agree,God has no reason to confuse us over the length of days in the begining in genesis,and he proves it much later when he tells moses and Israel to obey the sabbath,the 7th day,and rest because that's what He did,God created everything in 6days and rested on the 7th day
 

valiant

Senior Member
Mar 22, 2015
8,025
124
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#36
The hebrews DID say 24 hour day.

God proved it when he told moses and Israel to obey the Sabbath. The 7th day, Because in 6 days he created the heavens and earth.


God is not a god of confusion, He would not say it was a 24 hour day, unless it was.

LOL show me a 24 hour day specifically spoken of in Scripture, and I will show you a fake Scripture. God would certainly be a God of confusion if He referred to a 24 hour day when such a day was unknown.

Actually Genesis 1 DEFINES 'day'. It means a period of light. You really cannot deny it IF you are honest.

Exodus 20 tells us nothing about the meaning of day in Genesis 1. it simply sees the ideas as parallel. The length of days was not fixed as it is today and Scripture constantly indicates that God's days are not like our days.
 

valiant

Senior Member
Mar 22, 2015
8,025
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#37
i agree,God has no reason to confuse us over the length of days in the begining in genesis,and he proves it much later when he tells moses and Israel to obey the sabbath,the 7th day,and rest because that's what He did,God created everything in 6days and rested on the 7th day

He doesn't confuse us. He says it is a period of light (1.5). It is YOU PEOPLE who confuse the issue.

Exodus 20 proves nothing apart from a sevenfold pattern.


A day is a day is a day. It is a period of light!!!!!!
 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
#38
LOL show me a 24 hour day specifically spoken of in Scripture, and I will show you a fake Scripture. God would certainly be a God of confusion if He referred to a 24 hour day when such a day was unknown.

Actually Genesis 1 DEFINES 'day'. It means a period of light. You really cannot deny it IF you are honest.

Exodus 20 tells us nothing about the meaning of day in Genesis 1. it simply sees the ideas as parallel. The length of days was not fixed as it is today and Scripture constantly indicates that God's days are not like our days.
He did define it, In exodus when he claimed he made the earth in 6 days, and on the 7th he rested. so we are to make the 7th day holy. and rest as he did..

Thats all the proof we need,

Your argument that it is a day of light notwithstanding, Just because you could be right, does not mean you are.
 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
#39
He doesn't confuse us. He says it is a period of light (1.5). It is YOU PEOPLE who confuse the issue.

Exodus 20 proves nothing apart from a sevenfold pattern.


A day is a day is a day. It is a period of light!!!!!!

Yep. a day is a day is a day, A day in gen 1 is just as much a day as yesterday was.
 

valiant

Senior Member
Mar 22, 2015
8,025
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#40

I do not think we will know either way until eternity..

It is commonly held view moses wrote all 5 books.. Some believe he copied some fro books brought through from the flood by noah.

Either way, this should not be a point of contention, because it can not be proven either way.
True but if Moses did use sources, as I believe he did, nevertheless he used them in such a way that they became God's revelation.