What are your thoughts on separating the Law of Moses into three distinct parts and saying one still applies to us today? We have the ceremonial law, judicial law and the moral law. The moral law still stands it is said because God's character and morality is unchanging. However, this idea that we are to be obedient to the moral law, is this biblical? What of the Law of Liberty, or the Law of Christ?
The distinction, if there is one, that needs to be made is between the Law of Christ (love) and the moral law (from the Law of Moses). This idea that we isolate one part of the Law and say it still applies, how does this work in conjunction with us being dead to the Law of Moses? Not being under the Law of Moses? Christ being the end of the Law of Moses? These questions go through my mind when people say we are under obligation to be obedient to the moral law.
My question to you and directive, is for you to expound on this. Make a case as why or why not we are to isolate, or extract the moral law from the Law of Moses and whether it is the same as the Law of Christ. Is not the Law of Moses a unit, and therefore inseparable? Expound.
The distinction, if there is one, that needs to be made is between the Law of Christ (love) and the moral law (from the Law of Moses). This idea that we isolate one part of the Law and say it still applies, how does this work in conjunction with us being dead to the Law of Moses? Not being under the Law of Moses? Christ being the end of the Law of Moses? These questions go through my mind when people say we are under obligation to be obedient to the moral law.
My question to you and directive, is for you to expound on this. Make a case as why or why not we are to isolate, or extract the moral law from the Law of Moses and whether it is the same as the Law of Christ. Is not the Law of Moses a unit, and therefore inseparable? Expound.
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