Dispensationalism

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Pamella

Senior Member
Sep 10, 2014
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#1
I am doing an 'in depth' study of Matthew which the Lord has me in.
In this part the author is talking about dispensationalism. I have just really tried to read about it on the internet as before I mostly ignored it. This author mentioned now the dispensationalism problem a couple of times.
So what are your views on dispensationalism, and why?
Thanks.
 
Feb 7, 2015
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#2
Just another manmade invention.
 

notuptome

Senior Member
May 17, 2013
15,050
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#3
Dispensations are often disparaged by those whose doctrine conflicts with how God deals in time.

Dispensations are not inspired sections of scripture. Dispensations are simply tools to help us to understand how God Who is eternal operates in time when revealing Himself to His creation, us.

God has given covenants to Israel and God has given additional covenants as time has moved forward. God has and always will fulfill His part of the covenants but Israel has not been so faithful.

If one who is studying the bible does not account for dispensations in time then they cannot arrive at the correct understanding of Gods mighty works.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
 

Budman

Senior Member
Mar 9, 2014
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#4
I believe God deals with different people/nations in different periods of time. And has revealed different aspects of Himself over time.
 

crossnote

Senior Member
Nov 24, 2012
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#5
The core of dispensationalism is twofold.

1. A literal approach to Scripture.
2. A distinction between Israel and the Church.

I hold to both.
 
Jun 14, 2016
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#6
Just another manmade invention.
???????
I believe God deals with different people/nations in different periods of time. And has revealed different aspects of Himself over time.
Pretty straightforward.

The core of dispensationalism is twofold.

1. A literal approach to Scripture.
2. A distinction between Israel and the Church.

I hold to both.
Again, pretty straightforward, and should make for great study for the OP, and an interesting thread. ;)
 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
#7
dispensationalsim is just a means to try to divide certain aspects in history to make it better understood.

For an example. the age of adam and eve before the fall is sees as the age of innocence.

the age of Isreal following the giving of the law up until Christ is sometimes seen as the age of the law or Isreal.

the time of pentecost until the present time is known as the church age.

that is all it is, nothing more.
 
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May 19, 2016
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#8
The core of dispensationalism is twofold.

1. A literal approach to Scripture.
2. A distinction between Israel and the Church.

I hold to both.

=====>>> DISPENSATIONALISM IS FALSE!!!!! Why? Because "Israel" is NOT distinct from "church".

Here are 10 reasons which disconfirm Dispensationalism. Please engage these Scriptural truths!


1. The church is the collective body (Col. 1:18,24) of individuals (1 Cor. 12:27) in the Messiah who inaugurated the New Covenant (Lk. 22:20). But only ISRAEL (Jer. 31:31; Heb. 8:8) participates in the New Covenant with YHVH. Therefore, the church IS the Israel of Jer. 31. Thus, there is no distinction between "Israel" and "church". Thus, Dispensationalism is false.


2. The covenants BELONG TO ISRAEL (Eph. 2:12); but then, all covenant participants are necessarily ISRAELITES in covenant with God!

***You can’t participate in a covenant between God and Israel…unless you ARE an Israelite!

Thus, all Christians are Israelites. The Church is Israel. Therefore, the church is NOT a new dispensation, but it existed prior to the inauguration of the New Covenant (Mt. 18:17), and it extends even to Sinai (Gr. “ekklesia”, Ac. 7:38). See, also, “ekklesia” (in the Septuagint) used in reference to the assembly of Israel.


3. The Old Covenant and New Covenant can BOTH continue to be in force simultaneously. The promises of the New Covenant need not require the cancellation of the Old Covenant. Thus, the Old Covenant is ready (Gr. “engoos”, Heb. 8:13) to pass away, implying that it had not yet passed away as of the New-Covenant-Era time of the writing of the book of Hebrews. We function within both the new AND (Gr. “kai”, Mt. 13:52) old. “New and old”, not “new replaces old”.

NOT everything in the Torah (e.g., Dt. 30:8; 4:30) or Prophets (e.g., Jer. 16; Jer. 23; Jer. 33; Eze. 40-47; Zec. 14; Mal. 2-Mal. 3; etc.) is fulfilled. And, heaven and earth have not yet passed away (Mt. 5:18; Rev. 21:1 is yet future); thus, the Old Covenant must still be force (Mt. 5:18), even though the New Covenant is already inaugurated (Lk. 22:20). “New AND old”, not “new replaces old”.


4. All four covenants (Abrahamic, Mosaic, Davidic, and New) are in force simultaneously. Therefore, if we must use the term “dispensation”, we could say that all dispensations are simultaneously in force. But then traditional "dispensationalism" is false, because it assumes that the Mosaic dispensation is replaced by the Church dispensation.


5. Dispensationalism assumes the Mosaic Covenant (i.e., Torah) is replaced by the New Covenant and, thus, terminated.

My response: Heb. 8:13 (see above) confirms that both covenants function simultaneously.

And, Mt. 5:19 confirms that our obedience to Mosaic Covenant Torah is not only in force, but determines our position in the coming kingdom.

And, Torah (for Jeremiah) is Mosaic Torah; this Mosaic Torah passes directly into the New Covenant (Jer. 31:33; Heb. 8:10).

Dispensationalists agree that the word of God certainly includes the Law and temple ordinances. Yet they reject the word of God (via the claim that the Mosaic Covenant is terminated). Again, this is a blatant internal inconsistency within dispensationalism.

And, since Dt. 30:1-8 (and Zec. 14; Eze. 40-47; Mal. 2-3; Jer. 16; Jer. 23; Jer. 33; etc.) are not yet fulfilled, the Mosaic Covenant must still be in force, because NOT EVERYTHING in the Torah (or prophets) is yet fulfilled (Mt. 5:18).

In fact, Paul took part in a temple/sacrificial/Levitical vow to prove his SUPPORT for Torah-obedience (in general) and support for infant circumcision (in particular, Ac. 21:21-24). In imitation of Paul, Christians should promote (not oppose!) this support for infant circumcision and Torah-obedience (1 Cor. 11:1; Php. 4:9). Paul simply opposed adult male Gentile convert circumcision because: (a) it is not required to be initially saved (Ac. 15:1,11), and (b) it is not required as part of ongoing growth in obedience to the Torah of the covenants (1 Cor. 7:19). Thus, physically uncircumcised adult male Gentile converts can (and should) walk in obedience to the Torah of the covenants, even though they are physically uncircumcised (Rom. 2:26-27).

Torah defines holiness (Rom. 7:12), and Christians should be holy. Thus, Christians should obey Torah. This explains why Peter applies Lev. 11 to Christians (1 Pe. 1:16), and Paul applies Lev. 11:8 (2 Cor. 6:17) to Christians.

Torah defines righteousness (Rom. 7:12), and Christians should do righteous works of Torah-obedience (Dt 8:3; Mt. 4:4; 5:20, 1 Jn. 2:29; 3:7).

Torah defines goodness (Rom. 7:12), and Christians should do good. Thus, Christians should obey Torah.

We walk not in the flesh (which is incapable of, and opposes, Torah-obedience, Rom. 8:7), but in the Spirit (which, by implication, is a walk of Torah-obedience, cf. Heb. 10:15-16; Eze. 11:19-20; Eze. 36:26-27; Eze. 37:14,24; Is. 59:21). Thus, Paul obeyed God’s law (Torah, Rom. 7:22), but not so as to be justified by faithless (Gal. 3:12) Torah-obedience (Gal. 5:4), but to exemplify a true walk of righteous faithfulness (Rom. 1:17; Gal. 3:11; Heb. “emunah”, Hab. 2:4), that is, faithful Torah-obedience (see “emunah” in Ps. 119:30,86,138).

Christ is the end (i.e., purpose or aim) of Torah (Rom. 10:4). He is NOT the termination of the Torah, because Paul says that faithful Torah-obedience (Dt. 30:14) IS the very word of faith which he preaches (Dt. 30:14 subsumed in Rom. 10:8).

The Psalms are not abolished (Eph. 5:19), but are Scripture which can not be broken (Jn. 10:34-35). Thus, Christians should obey the Psalms; this entails Torah-obedience (Ps. 1; Ps. 19; Ps. 119; etc.)

The Prophets are not abolished, but comprise the very foundation of the church (Eph. 2:20). The prophets require Torah-obedience. (Anti-Torah prophets are FALSE prophets! Mt. 7:15,22-23; Dt. 13:1-5; 18:20. Pentecostals/Charismatics…I love you…but beware! Many false (anti-Torah) prophets will arise, Mt. 24:11).

Torah-disobedience (Eze. 36:19; Dt. 30:17-18) is shameful (Eze. 36:32), and leads to a terrible (Mt. 7:21-23) fiery (Mt. 13:41-42) fate. Thus, Christians promote (and grow in) faithful Torah-obedience (not promotion of Torah-termination!).

And, Jesus taught obedience to the greater AND lesser commands of Torah (Mt. 23:23), and even taught obedience to Torah-based judgments issued by Pharisees (Mt. 23:2-3). Jesus even sent Torah-teachers (Gr. “grammateus”, Mt. 23:34) to properly represent His ministry. Hence, faithful Torah-obedience is a sufficient condition for eternal life (Mt. 19:16-17). Jesus obeyed Torah and expected His disciples to do likewise (Lk. 6:40). And, these Torah-obedient teachings of Jesus should not be opposed, but should be spread to His disciples throughout the world (Mt. 28:19-20).

Jesus plainly affirmed that Torah-obedience is a sufficient condition of eternal life (Lk. 10:25-28).

These reasons jointly confirm that dispensationalism is WRONG in claiming that the Mosaic Covenant is terminated/abolished/replaced/not applicable.


6. Dispensationalists claim the (allegedly racially divisive) Mosaic Covenant is replaced by the (allegedly racially nondivisive) New Covenant.

My response: Racial inclusiveness in the New Covenant is NOT NEW!

The Mosaic Covenant does not require a dividing wall or barrier (Eph. 2:14, p. 195); rather, this dividing wall was a man-made dogmatic decree (Gr. “dogma”, Eph. 2:15). Mosaic Torah rejects such an ordinance, and INCLUDES any Gentile/Foreigner who desires to walk in faithful obedience to the covenant (Dt. 29:11-13; Dt. 31:12; Is. 56:6). Indeed, one-law-for-all (regardless of race) is the general theme in Mosaic Torah. “Your people shall be my people” is consistent with Torah (Ruth. 1:16).

What is newly revealed is the fact that racial inclusiveness (in ALL covenants, Eph. 2:11-12) is properly and fully implemented “in Christ Jesus through the Gospel” (Eph. 3:6). And, the anti-Torah racial divisions dogmatically asserted by the religious establishment must be understood as forever ultimately abolished “in Christ Jesus through the Gospel”.


7. Dispensationalists claim the Mosaic Covenant is fulfilled in (and replaced by) the New Covenant. They claim the Davidic Covenant is fulfilled in the New Covenant.

My response: We agree the Davidic Covenant and Mosaic Covenant are fulfilled in the New Covenant. But, the Davidic Covenant is fulfilled in conjunction with the Mosaic Covenant (1 Ki. 2:3-4). Therefore, the Davidic Covenant must be fulfilled in conjunction with BOTH the Mosaic Covenant and the New Covenant. But, dispensationalists deny the ongoing force of Mosaic Covenant. Thus, dispensationalism is disconfirmed.

And, the Davidic Covenant is fulfilled in a covenant of peace in which God’s ordinances and statutes are in force (Eze. 37:24-26). We agree that terms such as “commandments”, “statutes”, “judgments/ordinances” refer to Mosaic Torah in passages such as Dt. 6:1-2,17; 7:11; 8:11; 11:1; 12:1; 28:1,15; 30:10,16. So, the Davidic Covenant will be fully fulfilled in conjunction with obedience to Mosaic Torah. Thus, dispensationalism is inconsistent because it affirms passages which entail a Mosaic-Torah-obedient future fulfillment of the Davidic Covenant, yet it simultaneously denies the ongoing force of the Mosaic Torah Covenant.


8. Dispensationalists concede that the Mosaic Covenant depends upon the Abrahamic Covenant, and that the Mosaic Covenant is given to fulfill the Abrahamic Covenant, and that this is, indeed, the message of all the prophets.

My response: Then the Mosaic Covenant is still in force! The Abrahamic Covenant is not yet fully fulfilled; and the Abrahamic Covenant is to be fulfilled IN CONJUNCTION WITH the Mosaic Covenant (Jer. 11:1-5; Dt. 6:10-25; Dt. 30:1-8), but not until “the latter days” (Dt. 4:30) when an even greater exodus back to the Promised Land shall occur (Jer. 16:14-16; Jer. 23:1-8).

Therefore, the Mosaic Covenant has not yet been fully fulfilled as the Torah and prophets have declared that it will be fulfilled in the future. The Mosaic Covenant must, then, still be in force. Again, dispensationalism is disconfirmed.


9. Dispensationalists affirm that the new covenant is the form in which Abrahamic covenant blessing will be fulfilled. And, they also affirm that the new covenant will be given precisely to bring the Abrahamic covenant promise to fulfillment.

My response: Abrahamic Covenant blessing is fulfilled in conjunction with the Mosaic Covenant (Jer. 11:1-5; Dt. 6:10-25; Dt. 30:1-8). And, dispensationalists concede that the Abrahamic Covenant is fulfilled in the New Covenant. It follows that the Abrahamic Covenant is fulfilled in conjunction with both the Mosaic Covenant AND New Covenant. Yet dispensationalists claim the Mosaic Covenant is not in force. Thus, dispensationalism is again disconfirmed.


10. Dispensationalists affirm that the prophets who predicted the new covenant often spoke of the fulfillment of the covenant to David in the reign of a future king.

My response: Yes. The Messiah functions to fulfill the Davidic Covenant in the New Covenant. But Davidic Covenant fulfillment entails that the Mosaic Covenant is in force (1 Ki. 2:3-4) complete with sacrificial/ceremonial/Levitical Torah (Jer. 33:17-22) which the Messiah comes to restore (i.e., He comes to restore the Torah-obedient covenant with Levi, see Mal. 3:1-4). This brings fulfillment to the Abrahamic Covenant (Jer. 33:25-26).

***WE THUS INFER ----> ALL FOUR COVENANTS ARE NOW INTERDEPENDENT AND IN FORCE!

So again, Dispensationalism (due to its termination of the Mosaic Covenant) is disconfirmed.


======>>>>> CONCLUSION: Dispensationalism fails by affirming the three following FALSE claims:

1. The “church” is a dispensation distinct from the dispensation with “Israel”.

2. The already-inaugurated Abrahamic, Davidic, and New covenants are to be fully fulfilled in a future dispensation, and the Mosaic Covenant is fulfilled by Messiah and no longer in force.

3. The Torah of the Abrahamic, Mosaic, and Davidic covenants is not applicable to the “church”. The Torah of the New Covenant is applicable to the “church”, but is a Torah that is distinct from the Torah of the Abrahamic, Mosaic, and Davidic covenants.


APPLICATION: Let us affirm the following TRUTHS of Scripture!

1. "Church" is NOT distinct from "Israel".

2. The covenants (Abrahamic, Mosaic, Davidic, New) are not yet all FULLY fulfilled...and they WILL be more fully fulfilled in the future....thus, they are all still in force, and none is terminated (or abolished or no longer applicable to us).

3. We Christians participate in the covenants between YHVH and Israel, therefore all of us Christians are ISRAELITES.

4. We should grow in faithful OBEDIENCE (not opposition!) to the Torah of the many covenants in which we participate.


Remember? We are NOT excluded (Eph. 2:12). Thus we are INCLUDED within Israel as fellow Israelite participants in the Torah-laden covenants between YHVH and Israel.

Let us, therefore, JOYFULLY obey the Torah of the covenants in which we may participate, because of the grace and mercy of our Lord and Savior, Jesus Christ, who has saved us by faith (not works).

Amen!

blessings...
BibleGuy
 
Nov 22, 2015
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#9
Does DISPENSATIONALISM occur when we commit spiritual adultery on our Lord and go back to the law after we died to it so that we could be joined unto Him only? Romans 7:1-6

When does "dispensationalism" have different distinctions at different times in church history?


adultery-3.jpg
 
May 19, 2016
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#10
Does DISPENSATIONALISM occur when we commit spiritual adultery on our Lord and go back to the law after we died to it so that we could be joined unto Him only? Romans 7:1-6

When does "dispensationalism" have different distinctions at different times in church history?


View attachment 153142
Hi Grace777x70!

Does Rom. 7:1-6 prove that "Christian obedience to law" = "spiritual adultery on our Lord" ?

If YES, then you have MUCH to explain!

I set forth 10 detailed reasons disconfirming dispensationalism (and which also disconfirm your position).

Will you engage these reasons?

If not, your view remains undefended.

AND, you have the "spiritual adultery" concept completely backwards.

Spiritual adultery (Heb. "zanah", Ex. 34:15-16) refers to those who turn AWAY from YHVH and then they obey the ways of other false gods.

Spiritual adultery is NOT obedience to God's commands!

Paul says we should KEEP God's comands (1 Cor. 7:19), NOT pretend they are "spiritual adultery"!

Please engage my position....lest your position remain undefended.

blessings...
BibleGuy
 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
#11
to the op. Don;t listen to everything you hear.

Dispensationals do not have two different gospels. One for jews and one for Gentiles. or in two ages.

The gospel was the same for all. in all ages..


Israel and the church is united in Christ and we are one body..
 

Dan_473

Senior Member
Mar 11, 2014
9,054
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#12
hello Pamella!

here's my take on dispensations

regardless of which dispensation we're in, or none at all, this is always true:

THE ACTS 10:35 but in every nation anyone who fears him and does what is right is acceptable to him.


it's great to study the Bible. At the same time, a person could spend a lifetime reading what's already been written on dispensations, for and against
 
Apr 8, 2016
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#13
What?? Christ holds the believer and the believer holds the Law?? terrible depiction! sorry, but not true at all... Christ was the FULL-Fillment of The Law... When the Temple and mosaic system passed.... "their heaven and earth system", the Law Passed. John said The Law came through Moses, but Grace and Truth came by Christ. also note that Truth is on the side of Grace and NOT The Law,... The Temple was a type of heaven meeting earth and when Temple was destroyed along with complete system of religion and worship as well as priesthood, etc which can NEVER be built again, neither recreated, this Law passed away. became obsolete as Hebrews states. it was "passing away" at that time and the only thing that kept it from already having passed was that God had to destroy that which HE Alone made Holy... the Temple. with the destruction and passing of The Temple in 70 AD, the Law and Mosaic Old Covenant ceased to exist and thus Now The Everlasting Covenant IN Christ Alone remains. And by The Holy Spirit we walk in a New Covenant written on our hearts and not tablets of stone which in Corinthians we find that it, The Law, was called The Ministry of Death and The Ministry of Condemnation. We have been completely set free from this in which NONE could be justified! In Christ, those truly In Him, are not joined to The Law in any way whatsoever! Praise God! Thank you Jesus!
 
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Angela53510

Senior Member
Jan 24, 2011
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#14
Stay away from dispensationalism. It is the source of all this frantic end times scenarios and scaring people into the kingdom of God, which means, "Are they really saved, or just scared?" Not that I am the judge.

Try looking at covenants, instead. And do read the entire Bible from cover to cover. I think you will find that will help you more than some kind of biased, directed Bible study.
 
Sep 4, 2012
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#15
Stay away from dispensationalism. It is the source of all this frantic end times scenarios and scaring people into the kingdom of God, which means, "Are they really saved, or just scared?" Not that I am the judge.

Try looking at covenants, instead. And do read the entire Bible from cover to cover. I think you will find that will help you more than some kind of biased, directed Bible study.
Not only that, dispensationalism spills over into the heretical grace doctrines like mid-Acts dispensationalism. I read an article somewhere that Free Grace type doctrines and dispensationalism walk hand-in-hand. (btw Free Grace holds that a person can live like the devil and still be saved).
 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
#16
I would recommend just read the bible.

And take for yourself what the word says, And not listen to anyone..

Bit if you want to know what dispensationalist believe, Ask them, Not people who think they know what it means..because most of them do not understand it at all. Just the perverted form of it they were told by others what it means.
 
May 19, 2016
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#17
What?? Christ holds the believer and the believer holds the Law?? terrible depiction! sorry, but not true at all... Christ was the FULL-Fillment of The Law... When the Temple and mosaic system passed.... "their heaven and earth system", the Law Passed. John said The Law came through Moses, but Grace and Truth came by Christ. also note that Truth is on the side of Grace and NOT The Law,... The Temple was a type of heaven meeting earth and when Temple was destroyed along with complete system of religion and worship as well as priesthood, etc which can NEVER be built again, neither recreated, this Law passed away. became obsolete as Hebrews states. it was "passing away" at that time and the only thing that kept it from already having passed was that God had to destroy that which HE Alone made Holy... the Temple. with the destruction and passing of The Temple in 70 AD, the Law and Mosaic Old Covenant ceased to exist and thus Now The Everlasting Covenant IN Christ Alone remains. And by The Holy Spirit we walk in a New Covenant written on our hearts and not tablets of stone which in Corinthians we find that it, The Law, was called The Ministry of Death and The Ministry of Condemnation. We have been completely set free from this in which NONE could be justified! In Christ, those truly In Him, are not joined to The Law in any way whatsoever! Praise God! Thank you Jesus!

Hello PsalmistProphet,

You wrote: "Truth is on the side of Grace and NOT the Law..."

My response: You just contradicted Ps. 119:142. And Jesus said the Psalms are Scripture which can NOT be set aside. (Jn. 10)

AND, Grace was present even in the midst of the time of Moses (see "chen" in Ex. 33:13). And what is Moses' response to YHVH's grace? Answer: He chose to seek to know God AND His ways. WHERE did YHVH's ways come to be written? Answer: The Torah of Moses! (1 Ki. 2:3). So, grace was present ALSO right in the midst of the Torah.

Now you've got some explainin' to do!

You wrote: "The Temple was a type of heaven meeting earth and when Temple was destroyed along with complete system of religion and worship as well as priesthood, etc which can NEVER be built again, neither recreated, this Law passed away."

My response: Do you oppose the prophets?

Moses GUARANTEES 100% future Torah-obedience (Dt. 30:1-8).

Zechariah GUARANTEES future global participation in the sacrifice-laden feast of Sukkot (Zec. 14).

Ezekiel GUARANTEES future restoration of Levitical ceremonial/sacrificial activity (Eze. 40-47).

Jeremiah GUARANTEES future Levitical restoration in conjunction with the future fulfillment of the Davidic Covenant (Jer. 33).

Isaiah GUARANTEES future Levitical restoration as well (Is. 66).

JESUS comes to RESTORE the covenant with Levi, so that the offerings will be pleasing to YHVH as in the days of old, as in former years (Mal. 3:1-4).

JESUS comes to REBUILD the temple (Zec. 6) and guess what happens in the temple? TORAH! Yes...even Levitical ceremonial/sacrificial Torah.

Do you stand opposed to the prophets? And opposed to the Levitical ceremonial/sacrificial restoration purpose of Jesus?

Please correct your position to come into alignment with the Prophets which are NOT abolished (Mt. 5:17) and which comprise the very foundation of the church (Eph. 2:20).


You wrote: "the Law and Mosaic Old Covenant ceased to exist..."

My response: So Jesus was just joking when He said that our Torah-obedience and Torah-teaching determine our position in the coming kingdom? (Mt. 5:19)

Jesus was just joking when he applied all of His PRE-CROSS commands/teachings to us (Mt. 28:20)?

Jesus was wrong when He said that Torah-obedience is a sufficient condition of eternal life? (Lk. 10:25-28)

Of course not...

You wrote: "And by The Holy Spirit we walk in a New Covenant written on our hearts..."

My response: Careful! It is TORAH (Heb. "Torah", Jer. 31:33) that is written upon our hearts.

So then, should we OBEY or DISOBEY this Torah which the Spirit testifies is to be written upon our hearts? (Heb. 10:15-16)

Answer: OBEY! We must OBEY Torah written upon our hearts. That's WHY Paul applies the Torah-obedient Dt. 30:14 passage to you (Rom. 10:8).

Paul confirms it again (1 Cor. 7:19) and again (Rom. 2:13).

John agrees (1 Jn. 5:3).

Indeed, this IS our expression of love for God (Dt. 6:5,25), which Jesus APPLIES to us (Mt. 22:37).

Please revise your position to come into alignment with Scripture.

blessings...
BibleGuy
 
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Ahwatukee

Senior Member
Mar 12, 2015
11,159
2,373
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#18
Not only that, dispensationalism spills over into the heretical grace doctrines like mid-Acts dispensationalism. I read an article somewhere that Free Grace type doctrines and dispensationalism walk hand-in-hand. (btw Free Grace holds that a person can live like the devil and still be saved).
Hello HeRose,

Given the meaning of dispensation it is the natural way of reading the Bible, as it can be summed up in the following:

1) a consistently literal interpretation of Scripture, especially Bible prophecy, and 2) a view of the uniqueness of Israel as being separate from the church in God’s program. Allowances are made for symbols, figures of speech, and types, of course. It is understood that even symbols and figurative sayings have literal meanings behind them. So, why would we not read the word of God in this manner?

One of the biggest problems that we have today is people applying symbolism or spiritualizing scripture that is meant to be received in the literal sense, which destroys God's original meaning. For example, when a dispensationalist reads in Rev.20:1-3 that Satan is going to be seized and thrown into the Abyss for a thousand years, the dispensationalist interprets the thousand years as being literal, as well as a literal binding of Satan in the Abyss, as there is nothing in the context that would lead the reader to believe otherwise. But then you have those who come along who spiritualize the context and the thousand years is no longer a thousand years but an unknown amount of time and Satan is not literally restricted under the earth in the Abyss. Dispensationalism is none of those things that I have seen mentioned in the previous posts.

Therefore, a consistent literal interpretation of Scripture and recognizing the nation Israel and the Church as being separate in God's program basically sums up dispensationalism.
 
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A

AboundingGrace

Guest
#19
In places where it's translated "end of the world", the original text shows that the more correct translation is "end of the age". An 'age' is a dispensation of 2 thousand years time period.

The arrival of Jesus born in the earth (the fourth prophetic age, or the fourth prophetic day) which coincides with the 4th day of creation when God made the sun who's light shines upon the world.

The prophetic day is a dispensation which made way for the new covenant of grace to replace the law, those who sit in darkness upon whom the light shines.

We all in one way or another see through a glass darkly, but the path of the righteous gets brighter and brighter unto the full day.

I've heard of the theological terms "the age of grace", "the age of the church".

I've found teachings that use the dispensation chart that divides 6 thousand years into 4 dispensations, each 2 thousand years in length.
To me, it makes an understanding of what the apostle Peter wrote, "A day is as a thousand years, and a thousand years is as a day." He said 'day' and 'years' twice which to me reveals that he knew of the 4 thousand year ages, and I'm inclined to think that he knew that Jesus would come again after 2 thousand years.

It also makes sense of the scripture about the two days and then God will revive the nation of Israel. "After two days He will revive us." I'm inclined to think that the apostle Peter could have been thinking of that when he wrote the verse above.

Like a clock that tells time, knowing the dispensations helps to know where we are on the prophetic timeline.

When the apostle Paul wrote of the age(s) to come, he is referring to another dispensation, I believe that he's talking about the Millennial age.
 

fredoheaven

Senior Member
Nov 17, 2015
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#20
Giving you verses on dispensation.

1 Corinthians 9:17 For if I do this thing willingly, I have a reward: but if against my will, a
dispensation of the gospel is committed unto me.

Ephesians 1:10 That in the dispensation of the fulness of times he might gather together in one all things in Christ, both which are in heaven, and which are on earth; even in him:

Ephesians 3:2 If ye have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which is given me to you-ward:

Colosians 1:25 Whereof I am made a minister, according to the dispensation of God which is given to me for you, to fulfil the word of God;