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JGIG

Senior Member
Aug 2, 2013
2,295
167
63
#41
Wow JGIG!

I love you!

Thanks for taking this seriously. I'm glad you're trying to explain your viewpoint to us.

[ . . . ]

NOW....this thread could benefit from some organization. How about we invent a PERMANENT NAME for each issue we raise?

That way we can easily scan through the thread and identify the content of our exchanges pertinent to that issue?


blessings...
BibleGuy
I'm content to continue answering the questions you've already asked, BibleGuy. Adding what you propose would not organize the thread, but rather make it more confusing with you asking questions/raising issues you've already asked/raised, and which I've already committed to answering.

You'll just have to be patient
.

-JGIG
 

JGIG

Senior Member
Aug 2, 2013
2,295
167
63
#42
Wow JGIG!

I love you!

Thanks for taking this seriously. I'm glad you're trying to explain your viewpoint to us.

This is surely a HIGH-PRIORITY issue, learning WHO we are (Israel!) and HOW we should live as Christians (Torah!), just as commanded by the Father, Son, Spirit, Pentateuch, Prophets, Psalms, Proverbs, Apostles, Epistles, even Revelation.

After all, most of us Christians do not even know this...yet!

Of course we are saved by grace through faith (not works), but we Christians (being Israelites) participate in the Torah-laden covenants between YHVH and Israel, AND we should grow in faithful obedience to the Torah of those covenants in which we participate.

[ . . . ]

blessings...
BibleGuy

Yes, who we are in Christ is a high-priority issue.

Gentiles do not become Israel when they come into Christ, and we do not come under Torah Law when we come into Christ. I'm sure we'll get to that all in due time.

Patience, BibleGuy, patience.

You must give me the time to address the issues/questions you've already raised without mercilessly piling more on, don't you agree?

-JGIG
 

JGIG

Senior Member
Aug 2, 2013
2,295
167
63
#43

.
Originally Posted by BibleGuy

11. You wrote: “And what were they not believing?

Then they asked him, “What must we do to do the works God requires?”
Jesus answered,
“The work of God is this: to believe in the one he has sent.” (from Jn. 6)”

My response: AND! If we believe in Jesus, then we should OBEY His teachings.

AND, what did Jesus teach?

That our eternal life depends upon obedience to Torah! (Lk. 10:25-28).

That our position in the coming kingdom depends upon our Torah-teaching and Torah-obedience (Mt. 5:19).

That those who oppose Torah (exemplifying “anomia”, lawlessness) will be cast away (Mt. 7:21-23; 13:41-42).

So yes! Please BELIEVE even in the teachings of this Messiah Jesus, Whom God has sent, Who comes to RESTORE even the Levitical priesthood (Mal. 3).

STOP opposing the restoration which our Messiah comes to bring forth.




BibleGuy, Jesus did not come to restore a covenant that was already in place (the Old Covenant), He came to restore within people the Life that was lost at the Fall, something that the Old Covenant could never accomplish.

The passages you cite above are Jesus preaching the Law to those born under the Law. There were two primary parts to the ministry of Christ: 1) Preach the Law full preach to those under the Law to show them their sin and need for grace, and 2) Preach the coming of the New Covenant in His Blood, which would restore to them the Life lost at the Fall.

You also have some clarifying to do concerning contradictory statements I see popping up here and there from you:


Originally Posted by BibleGuy

In fact, Jesus said Torah-obedience is a sufficient condition of eternal life (Lk. 10:25-28), again disconfirming your position.



Originally Posted by BibleGuy

You have CLEARLY implied that I do not teach that we are saved by the grace of Christ for salvation and life.

Thus, you have opposed me PERSONALLY, for this is FALSE.

AND, you have MISREPRESENTED my position.

Is that what you do?

Misrepresent my position, rather than engage it?

I'm sorry to see you acting that way.

I expect better from a brother in the Lord.


Originally Posted by BibleGuy

Of course we are saved by grace through faith (not works), but we Christians (being Israelites) participate in the Torah-laden covenants between YHVH and Israel, AND we should grow in faithful obedience to the Torah of those covenants in which we participate.




You are saying that one can be saved by Torah obedience?

Or by faith in Christ?

Which is it?


-JGIG
 

JGIG

Senior Member
Aug 2, 2013
2,295
167
63
#44
.
Originally Posted by BibleGuy

12. You wrote: “The Psalms require obedience to the covenant in force at the time.”

My response: Jesus said the Psalms CANNOT be set aside. Thus, the Torah-obedient Psalms are STILL in force.

Thus, I use the Torah-obedient Psalms to ADMONISH (Gr. “nutheteo”) you to obey the Torah of those very Psalms, just as Paul requires (Col. 3:16).



No one is setting the Psalms aside. And Paul does not require anyone to obey Torah - certainly not in Colossians 3:16!


Let the word [G3056 - logos] of Christ dwell in you richly in all wisdom; teaching and admonishing one another in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs, singing with grace in your hearts to the Lord.

Col 3 16.PNG


If you could just grasp the meanings of logos vs. nomos vs. rhema so much of your false belief system would simply melt away.


Logos is JESUS, not TORAH, BibleGuy!





Originally Posted by BibleGuy

And, Heb. 8:13 confirms that Torah persists even during the New Covenant Era.

AND, Jer. 31:33 has TORAH passing directly into the New Covenant.

So, even if you want to (wrongly) pretend that the Mosaic Covenant is no longer in force…the TORAH of that covenant still passes directly into the New Covenant (Jer. 31:33). Thus, you still have not justified your opposition to the Levitical Torah which passes directly into the New Covenant Torah, per Jer. 31:33.



Scripture and real-time events don't support your assertions, BibleGuy.

To repeat from an earlier post: T
he letter to the Hebrews was all about preparing Israel in that generation after the Cross, but before the destruction of the Temple, by teaching them about the New Covenant - now in place - built on better promises.

God, in His grace, was not going to leave Israel hanging, but offered a gentle transition into the New Covenant over the course of one generation.

Thankfully, the letter to the Hebrews is still available to us, as much of the Body is as much bound to the Law as Israel was before the Temple fell.

I will add here that the Old Covenant practices, though obsolete (they had to sew the curtain back up!) did persist - for one generation. Then God allowed the Temple to be completely destroyed.

The Law was not abolished - it does still stand in condemnation of sin - but as a functioning covenental system, it is obsolete, which is what Hebrews 8:13 was telling Israel.

Regarding Jer. 31, no, it was not Torah that Scripture has 'passing directly into the New Covenant', but a New Covenant coming into existence, which would not be like the old (Jer. 31:32). The Laws written on our hearts is not The Law, but the commandments of God after the Cross: Believe on the One He has sent and love one another (1 Jn. 3:23-24).



-JGIG
 

JGIG

Senior Member
Aug 2, 2013
2,295
167
63
#45
.
Originally Posted by BibleGuy

13. You wrote: “The instructions about how to enter into and stay in covenant with God are quite different from the Abrahamic to the Sinaitic to the New Covenants.”

My response: All the covenants (plural! Eph. 2:12) are still in force. No Torah from any of the covenants has been terminated. We participate in these covenants. Thus, we OBEY the Torah of the covenants in which we participate.



First, let's see what Eph. 2:12 actually says. You have this habit of throwing out references without showing what they say, claiming that they support your assertion, when they don't even come close!

12 remember that at that time you were separate from Christ, excluded from citizenship in Israel and foreigners to the covenants of the promise, without hope and without God in the world.


That passage does not say that all covenants are still in effect - it just doesn't. What it does say is that Gentiles, at that time, were without Christ (because He had not yet done the Work of the Cross, in context), and that since they were not Israel they did not have citizenship with Israel and were foreigners to the covenant with Israel - without hope! But keep reading! This gets really good!


13 But now in Christ Jesus you who once were far away have been brought near by the blood of Christ.


THAT is the mystery of the Gospel! Not that Gentiles become Israel to participate in the Old Covenant, but that the Blood of Christ brings them into the New Covenant by faith in Christ! They become one Body in Christ! Keep reading, it gets even BETTER!


4 In reading this, then, you will be able to understand my insight into the mystery of Christ, 5 which was not made known to people in other generations as it has now been revealed by the Spirit to God’s holy apostles and prophets. 6 This mystery is that through the gospel the Gentiles are heirs together with Israel, members together of one body, and sharers together in the promise in Christ Jesus.

7 I became a servant of this gospel by the gift of God’s grace given me through the working of his power. 8 Although I am less than the least of all the Lord’s people,this grace was given me:
to preach to the Gentiles the boundless riches of Christ, 9 and to make plain to everyone the administration of this mystery, which for ages past was kept hidden in God, who created all things.

10 His intent was that now, through the church, the manifold wisdom of God should be made known to the rulers and authorities in the heavenly realms, 11
according to his eternal purpose that he accomplished in Christ Jesus our Lord. 12 In him and through faith in him we may approach God with freedom and confidence. (from Eph. 3)



The Abrahamic and New Covenants are still in force, though the Abrahamic finds its full fulfillment in the New Covenant. The Old Covenant, according to Scripture, is now obsolete in Christ. This is a point already mostly addressed; folks can scroll down through the posts to see where.


I will add one thing here, however, and that is this in Galatians 3 -


15 Brothers and sisters, let me take an example from everyday life. Just as no one can set aside or add to a human covenant that has been duly established, so it is in this case. 16 The promises were spoken to Abraham and to his seed. Scripture does not say “and to seeds,” meaning many people, but “and to your seed,” meaning one person, who is Christ.

17 What I mean is this: The law, introduced 430 years later,
does not set aside the covenant previously established by God and thus do away with the promise. 18 For if the inheritance depends on the law, then it no longer depends on the promise; but God in his grace gave it to Abraham through a promise.


And this, from Heb. 7 -


18 The former regulation is set aside because it was weak and useless 19 (for the law made nothing perfect), and a better hope is introduced, by which we draw near to God.


According to Scripture, the Law did not set aside the Abrahamic Covenant, but the New Covenant DID set aside the Law, the Old Covenant.

Let me put it this way: The New Covenant IS new for Israel - the Old had to be set aside. The New Covenant for Gentiles is the ONLY covenant by which we draw near to God (see the Ephesians passages above). The unconditional covenants given by God are still in effect - God both promises and fulfills those covenants - they are not dependent upon man at all. The Old Covenant is NOT an unconditional covenant, however, and because it was weak and useless (for the Law made nothing perfect), it has been set aside (see Heb. 7).

The Scriptures are not unclear on these facts.


-JGIG
 

JGIG

Senior Member
Aug 2, 2013
2,295
167
63
#46
Time for a break . . . I'm heading out to fellowship with some ladies from church and spend time with a family who is here for a short time from the mission field. They serve in a closed country, putting their lives on the line to bring the Good News of Christ to the Lost.

Be back later to address some more of those questions/issues!

Bye for now,
-JGIG
 
May 19, 2016
417
2
0
#47
Continuation of issue: #rhema

Hello JGIG,

You've failed to discern the Scriptural fact I'm bringing forth.

I'm surprised I need to give you so much detail.

But maybe that's really what you need.

Or maybe you're just trying to come up with distracting objections?

So maybe this detail is what WE need to expose your distracting loophole-seeking objections?

Or maybe something else?

I can't tell right now...

Let's try it again....with even MORE detail, thereby confirming that my position stands firm.

1. Dt. 8:3 refers to that which comes forth from YHVH.
2. YHVH's commands come from YHVH.
3. YHVH's commands are contained in the written Torah of Moses (1 Ki. 2:3).
4. The written Torah of Moses comes from YHVH (from 2 and 3).
5. Dt. 8:3 refers to that which INCLUDES the written Torah of Moses (from 1 and 4).
6. The LXX uses "rhema" (in Greek, Dt. 8:3) to refer to that which comes from YHVH.
7. "Rhema" (Dt. 8:3, LXX) refers to that which INCLUDES the written Torah of Moses (from 5 and 6).
8. "Rhema" (Mt. 4:4) is simply a citation of the Dt. 8:3 passage.
9. "Rhema" (Mt. 4:4) refers to that which INCLUDES the written Torah of Moses (from 7 and 8).
10. Jesus said we LIVE by that "rhema" (Mt. 4:4).
11. Therefore, Jesus said we LIVE by that which INCLUDES the written Torah of Moses (from 9 and 10).


Alright JGIG....how do you plan to squirm out of this one?

I'm finding a puzzling degree of resistance in you.

I'm beginning to wonder why you don't understand my point. Or maybe you're just searching for loopholes to avoid a conclusion you don't like? I can't tell...

Did I "go to the LXX to define a Hebrew word"? Of course not.

I never used "Greek" to DEFINE any Hebrew word.

BUT, it is STILL TRUE that "Rhema" refers to (not defines) that which includes the Torah of Moses, according to the reasoning I've set forth above.

The logic in my 11-point argument is pretty tight....so which of these 11 premises do you reject?

If you reject none, then can we FINALLY agree that you are WRONG to suggest that "rhema" can not refer to that which includes Torah?

Can we FINALLY agree that "rhema" (Mt. 4:4) refers to that which INCLUDES Torah, as I've shown?

I'm not claiming, of course, that Dt. 8:3 explicitly uses the word "TORAH"...I merely emphasize that "rhema" is REFERRING to that which includes the written Torah of Moses.

You wrote: "I see that 'towrah' is not the word used in the Hebrew, and since Jesus was quoting Deut. 8:3, He wasn't meaning Torah, either..."

My response: Sure, "torah" is not explicitly used in Dt. 8:3. But, once we agree on my 11-point argument above, then your claim here stands disconfirmed.

It doesn't matter if "Torah" is explicitly used in Dt. 8:3. You can REFER to an entity in MANY ways, in language.

Do we agree?

If not, then which of the 11 premises do you challenge?

You wrote: "Matthew, who does use the Greek 'nomos' when referring to Torah..."

My response: Sure, "nomos" can refer to the Torah of Moses. But other terms can too! Let's not be so naive that we pretend that "nomos" is the ONLY Greek term that can ever refer to Torah!

For example, 2 Ti. 3:16 refers to Torah, obviously, even though "nomos" is not explicitly used.
Is "Torah" included in "all Scripture"? Of course!

You conclude: "Jesus was NOT referring to the Law, and neither was Moses. "

My response: Your conclusion, here, is disconfirmed by my 11-point argument above.

Which of the 11 premises do you dispute?

Or what logical structure do you challenge?

If not...then my 11-point argument stands firm, REFUTING your apparent view that "rhema" does not refer to that which includes the written Torah of Moses.

You wrote: "Moses was, in Deut. 8:3, referring to a time before the Law was given..."

My response: Ok...but the APPLICATION carries over all the way into the time of Mt. 4:4 (which INCLUDES a very large time period, including the time during which Torah came forth from YHVH's mouth). AND, my 11-point argument stands firm in view of this consideration.

Therefore, the fact that "manna" preceded the giving of Torah is NOT a disconfirmation of my position. The fact that Dt. 8:3 refers to the time of the "manna" does not disconfirm my position.

Sure, Dt. 8:3 referred to a time before Torah was given, BUT it also emphasized a GENERAL PRINCIPLE which applies all the way until the time of Mt. 4:4 and beyond. AND, application of the principle leads to the conclusion I've detailed here.

What's the principle? That we LIVE by that which comes from God. And as I've shown, the Torah of Moses comes from God.

CONCLUSION: Can we FINALLY agree that you're wrong?

Can we FINALLY agree that Mt. 4:4 has Jesus affirming that we LIVE by that which includes the written Torah of Moses?

best...
BibleGuy


 
Mar 28, 2016
15,954
1,528
113
#48
The priest hood of the sons of Aaron is gone and is no more and will never be reinstated. In Leviticus God said that the day the priest tars his clothes I will tear the priest hood from you. When Jesus stood before Caiaphas He tore His clothes. We will be Priest in the new kingdom and not the sons of Aaron.
Good thoughts. Thanks for sharing that.

If I could add my two cents, two cents, two cents (sorry for the length). and try and look at a bigger picture...

Exodus 29:44 And I will sanctify the tabernacle of the congregation, and the altar: I will sanctify also both Aaron and his sons, to minister to me in the priest's office.

This is the beginning of the kingdom of priests which would be in respect to all Christians today.

Exo 29:4 And Aaron and his sons thou shalt bring unto the door of the tabernacle of the congregation, and shalt wash them with water.

That baptism ordinance is a continual ordinance as the same foundation for Christian (h20) baptisms, as the origin of it.

And thou shalt take the garments, and put upon Aaron the coat, and the robe of the ephod, and the ephod, and the breastplate, and gird him with the curious girdle of the ephod: And thou shalt put the mitre upon his head, and put the holy crown upon the mitre. Then shalt thou take the anointing oil, and pour it upon his head, and anoint him. And thou shalt bring his sons, and put coats upon them Exo 29:8

Aarons sons showed themselves as unfit for the work of a priest when they added their own flavor to the fire. Their flesh was consumed but the priestly clothes used in that ceremonial law was un-touched. Not even a smell of smoke.

The water (h20) of desire in regard to that baptism that was used to become a priest shows it was a ceremonial law, like all ceremonial laws they were required but could not make the conscience perfect this is seeing they were used a shadows and types until the time of the reformation .

And Nadab and Abihu, the sons of Aaron, took either of them his censer, and put fire therein, and put incense thereon, and offered strange fire before the LORD, which he commanded them not.And there went out fire from the LORD, and devoured them, and they died before the LORD. Lev 10:1

All priests were considered as Levites, but not every Levite was a priest. Just as every all priests where not of the family of Arron.

When a new priest entered the ministry it was required they be baptized by one who had become officiated. It is the same baptism as foundation for believers today as a kingdom of priest, sent as Ambassadors for Christ into the world.. Water was applied outwardly to show the desire of the one that wanted to become a priest.

It is why John disciples reasoned with the Jews. Now that Christ from the tribe of Judah, was officiated by John from the Levite family.

Therefore Christ showing he had made it his desire to be officiated, in his new officiated position as a ceremonial law he began his ministry as High Priest after the order of Melchizedek . He too could baptize as one of the priestly duties.

It I believe is what they were discussing whether or not Jesus being from the tribe of Judah could be an officiator seeing he was doing the work as if he was a Levite.. Then God sent the Lamb of God in the desert to test him .

Then there arose a question between some of John's disciples and the Jews about purifying.And they came unto John, and said unto him, Rabbi, he that was with thee beyond Jordan, to whom thou barest witness, behold, the same “baptizeth”, and all men come to him. Joh 3:25

Today all born again Christian are eligible to be used to go out into the world and make disciples of men as a priesthood of believers. They too then can baptize others with water to indicate their personal desire to serve as a priest.

This is especially true in lieu of the first century reformation which restored the time period back to the Judges when there were no outward priests and the judges were used to perform the duties as priest after the order of Melchisedec, who had no flesh and blood but was used as a vision pointing ahead to Christ, the Son of God, who abided as the high priest continually.

Heb 7:3 Without father, without mother, without descent, having neither beginning of days, nor end of life; but made like unto the Son of God; abideth a priest continually.

The Son of man in respect to the temporal flesh of Christ used for that one time demonstration of the work he performed during the foundation of the world as the lamb of God slain for our sin is over for over two thousand years

Today we do not know Christ after the flesh .And the same applies to us we are not considered male or female. The distinction was removed because of the reformation. The idea of looking for a fleshly Jesus again to return would be simply repeat the matter. It would be like double jeopardy as if the lord of glory who has no form needed to be crucified again and again to public shame as if one appearing in the flesh was not enough.

This I believe helps us to understand what Christ means when he says we are new creatures . The word “henceforth” coupled with “no more” shows this is without end . The outward promised demonstration of pouring out His Spirit life on flesh, as that not seen is over

Wherefore henceforth know we no man "after the flesh": yea, though we have known Christ after the flesh, yet now henceforth know we him no more.Therefore if any man be in Christ, he is a new creature: old things are passed away; behold, all things are become new. And all things are of God, who hath reconciled us to himself by Jesus Christ, and hath given to us ( as a kingdom of priest ) the ministry of reconciliation; To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation.Now then we are ambassadors for Christ, as though God did beseech you by us: we pray you in Christ's stead, be ye reconciled to God.For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him. 2Co 5:16-21

Supernatural God , which in regard to the word supernatural means without nature as a beginning . He remains without mother or father beginning of days or end of life neither having any descent.
 
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J

jcha

Guest
#49
.
Originally Posted by BibleGuy

13. You wrote: “The instructions about how to enter into and stay in covenant with God are quite different from the Abrahamic to the Sinaitic to the New Covenants.”

My response: All the covenants (plural! Eph. 2:12) are still in force. No Torah from any of the covenants has been terminated. We participate in these covenants. Thus, we OBEY the Torah of the covenants in which we participate.



First, let's see what Eph. 2:12 actually says. You have this habit of throwing out references without showing what they say, claiming that they support your assertion, when they don't even come close!

12 remember that at that time you were separate from Christ, excluded from citizenship in Israel and foreigners to the covenants of the promise, without hope and without God in the world.


That passage does not say that all covenants are still in effect - it just doesn't. What it does say is that Gentiles, at that time, were without Christ (because He had not yet done the Work of the Cross, in context), and that since they were not Israel they did not have citizenship with Israel and were foreigners to the covenant with Israel - without hope! But keep reading! This gets really good!


13 But now in Christ Jesus you who once were far away have been brought near by the blood of Christ.


THAT is the mystery of the Gospel! Not that Gentiles become Israel to participate in the Old Covenant, but that the Blood of Christ brings them into the New Covenant by faith in Christ! They become one Body in Christ! Keep reading, it gets even BETTER!


4 In reading this, then, you will be able to understand my insight into the mystery of Christ, 5 which was not made known to people in other generations as it has now been revealed by the Spirit to God’s holy apostles and prophets. 6 This mystery is that through the gospel the Gentiles are heirs together with Israel, members together of one body, and sharers together in the promise in Christ Jesus.

7 I became a servant of this gospel by the gift of God’s grace given me through the working of his power. 8 Although I am less than the least of all the Lord’s people,this grace was given me:
to preach to the Gentiles the boundless riches of Christ, 9 and to make plain to everyone the administration of this mystery, which for ages past was kept hidden in God, who created all things.

10 His intent was that now, through the church, the manifold wisdom of God should be made known to the rulers and authorities in the heavenly realms, 11
according to his eternal purpose that he accomplished in Christ Jesus our Lord. 12 In him and through faith in him we may approach God with freedom and confidence. (from Eph. 3)



The Abrahamic and New Covenants are still in force, though the Abrahamic finds its full fulfillment in the New Covenant. The Old Covenant, according to Scripture, is now obsolete in Christ. This is a point already mostly addressed; folks can scroll down through the posts to see where.


I will add one thing here, however, and that is this in Galatians 3 -


15 Brothers and sisters, let me take an example from everyday life. Just as no one can set aside or add to a human covenant that has been duly established, so it is in this case. 16 The promises were spoken to Abraham and to his seed. Scripture does not say “and to seeds,” meaning many people, but “and to your seed,” meaning one person, who is Christ.

17 What I mean is this: The law, introduced 430 years later,
does not set aside the covenant previously established by God and thus do away with the promise. 18 For if the inheritance depends on the law, then it no longer depends on the promise; but God in his grace gave it to Abraham through a promise.


And this, from Heb. 7 -


18 The former regulation is set aside because it was weak and useless 19 (for the law made nothing perfect), and a better hope is introduced, by which we draw near to God.


According to Scripture, the Law did not set aside the Abrahamic Covenant, but the New Covenant DID set aside the Law, the Old Covenant.

Let me put it this way: The New Covenant IS new for Israel - the Old had to be set aside. The New Covenant for Gentiles is the ONLY covenant by which we draw near to God (see the Ephesians passages above). The unconditional covenants given by God are still in effect - God both promises and fulfills those covenants - they are not dependent upon man at all. The Old Covenant is NOT an unconditional covenant, however, and because it was weak and useless (for the Law made nothing perfect), it has been set aside (see Heb. 7).

The Scriptures are not unclear on these facts.


-JGIG


119 Ministries presented: (they do make a lot of valid points)

Hebrews 7:12
Have you ever been told, the Law of God has changed?
It is different now.

It is not the same yesterday, today, and forever.

This verse is often cited:

Hebrews 7:12
For when there is a change (metatíthēmi) in the priesthood, there is necessarily a change (metáthesis) in the law as well.

The word for "change" as in “change of priesthood” and also "change of law" means "transfer" in the Greek.

It simply means that because the priesthood is transferred to the order of Melchizedek through our Messiah then the law must transfer to His administration as well.
So, same law, different administration.

If one reads the context of the surrounding text, this can be better understood.
It also helps to better understand the Greek definitions of the words translated as “change.”
The first, primary definition from Strong’s says it precisely.
"metatíthēmi / metáthesis"

First Primary Definition from Strongs:
"transfer: from one place to another"

There is a big difference in saying that the law is different versus simply transferred.


For example:

If a car is transferred from a car dealer in New York to a car dealer in California, the car is exactly the same, but simply in a different administration.

Did the car change?

No

The car was transferred.

When the administration of the priesthood was transferred in Messiah, the transfer of the law was transferred to that priesthood.

The Heavenly priesthood has always existed.

YHWH built into His law the right to administrate a priesthood on Earth as well.
The Heavenly always trumps the Earthly, as the Heavenly is perfect and the higher order...and the Earthly is only a reflection of the true image in the Heavens. This is what Hebrews goes on to say as well. (Exodus 25:40; Hebrews 8:5; Revelation 11:19).
Again...still the same law...

…new covenant, but same law.

Only four chapters later, the author of Hebrews uses the SAME Greek word in referring to Enoch:
Hebrews 11:5
By faith Enoch was taken up (metatithēmi) so that he should not see death, and he was not found, because God had taken him. Now before he was taken he was commended as having pleased God.

Enoch was "transferred" up to the heavenlies.

Did YHWH "change out" Enoch and "replace him" with another Enoch?
No.

He was simply transferred, just as the law was transferred…not made different…not changed…but
transferred.

Some then might point to verse 18, seemingly stating that the law of God was worthless:

Hebrews 7:18
For on the one hand, a former commandment is set aside because of its weakness and uselessness (for the law made nothing perfect); but on the other hand, a better hope is introduced, through which we draw near to God.


The first thing to note is that this verse is referring to a particular instruction, or commandment, in the Torah, not the whole Torah, or Law, in of itself.

Some attempt to state that verse 18 is referring to the whole Torah, but that is not what is being said.
The commandment that is being set aside, is the commandment for the Levites to administrate the priesthood. That commandment is set aside, not replaced or abolished. It is set aside through the means of the destruction of the temple.

There is a difference between set aside, and abolished.
This means that the commandment of the Levitical system still exists, but it is not exercisable because of the destruction of the Temple, which was scheduled to occur a couple years after Hebrews was written.
The destruction of the temple was a curse, not a blessing. It was a punishment, not a gift (Matthew 23:38).

This occurred because fault was found with “them” not the law of God. We see this in the very next
chapter:

Hebrews 8:8
For he finds fault with them when he says:
“Behold, the days are coming, declares the Lord, when I will establish a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah,

So, the Levitical system is set aside through the destruction of the Temple, and we have a new High Priest in the order of Melchizedek, our Messiah Yeshua (Jesus).
The priesthood was set aside because of weakness and uselessness because they were found to be at fault. The law did not make the Earthly priesthood perfect.
On the other hand, our Messiah is perfect, and He is our High Priest. He operates in the Heavenly Tabernacle, that is also perfect, not built with human hands (Hebrews 8:2).
So in summary, Hebrews 7:12 and 7:18 do not state that the Law of God changed. The law remains intact and unchanged.

What changed is that:

 We have a new High Priest in the order of Melchizedek.
 The Earthly temple is destroyed, setting aside the ability for the Levites to function as priests according to the commandment.
 The Levites were found at fault, which merited the punishment of the destruction of the temple
 We have a better hope and promises through Yeshua in the order of Melchizedek.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
24,681
13,368
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#50
JGIG, thanks much for taking this on. I realized that BG's soteriology was off when he tried to insert "faithless" into Galatians 3:3 and 3:5. I don't have time to do the work you have done, but I sincerely appreciate it. Rep for you! :)
 

JGIG

Senior Member
Aug 2, 2013
2,295
167
63
#51
.
Originally Posted by BibleGuy

Continuation of issue: #rhema

Hello JGIG,

You've failed to discern the Scriptural fact I'm bringing forth.

I'm surprised I need to give you so much detail.

But maybe that's really what you need.

Or maybe you're just trying to come up with distracting objections?

So maybe this detail is what WE need to expose your distracting loophole-seeking objections?

Or maybe something else?

I can't tell right now...

Let's try it again....with even MORE detail, thereby confirming that my position stands firm.

1. Dt. 8:3 refers to that which comes forth from YHVH.
2. YHVH's commands come from YHVH.
3. YHVH's commands are contained in the written Torah of Moses (1 Ki. 2:3).
4. The written Torah of Moses comes from YHVH (from 2 and 3).
5. Dt. 8:3 refers to that which INCLUDES the written Torah of Moses (from 1 and 4).
6. The LXX uses "rhema" (in Greek, Dt. 8:3) to refer to that which comes from YHVH.
7. "Rhema" (Dt. 8:3, LXX) refers to that which INCLUDES the written Torah of Moses (from 5 and 6).
8. "Rhema" (Mt. 4:4) is simply a citation of the Dt. 8:3 passage.
9. "Rhema" (Mt. 4:4) refers to that which INCLUDES the written Torah of Moses (from 7 and 8).
10. Jesus said we LIVE by that "rhema" (Mt. 4:4).
11. Therefore, Jesus said we LIVE by that which INCLUDES the written Torah of Moses (from 9 and 10).

Alright JGIG....how do you plan to squirm out of this one?

I'm finding a puzzling degree of resistance in you.

I'm beginning to wonder why you don't understand my point. Or maybe you're just searching for loopholes to avoid a conclusion you don't like? I can't tell...

Did I "go to the LXX to define a Hebrew word"? Of course not.

I never used "Greek" to DEFINE any Hebrew word.


BibleGuy, you wrote this in your previous post:

Originally Posted by BibleGuy

You are wrong. The term “rhema” is straight out of Dt. 8:3 (which Jesus was quoting!). Read it in the LXX, and you’ll see! The LXX uses “rhema” (Dt. 8:3) to refer to that which comes from YHVH’s mouth. This is TORAH!


Yeah, you did go to the LXX to define a Hebrew word.


Originally Posted by BibleGuy

BUT, it is STILL TRUE that "Rhema" refers to (not defines) that which includes the Torah of Moses, according to the reasoning I've set forth above.​

The logic in my 11-point argument is pretty tight....so which of these 11 premises do you reject?​


I reject the part where you don't go to the original language for the verse your referring to to define the word and then say that something 'refers to' (not defines) your word of choice.


If you reject none, then can we FINALLY agree that you are WRONG to suggest that "rhema" can not refer to that which includes Torah?

Can we FINALLY agree that "rhema" (Mt. 4:4) refers to that which INCLUDES Torah, as I've shown?​

It's not a matter of agreeing or not with you, BibleGuy, it's a matter of how the word is actually defined. You cannot just go about re-defining Biblical terms. You're rewriting Scripture if you do so.



I'm not claiming, of course, that Dt. 8:3 explicitly uses the word "TORAH"...I merely emphasize that "rhema" is REFERRING to that which includes the written Torah of Moses.​


No, it's not, or it would be defined as such.


You wrote: "I see that 'towrah' is not the word used in the Hebrew, and since Jesus was quoting Deut. 8:3, He wasn't meaning Torah, either..."

My response: Sure, "torah" is not explicitly used in Dt. 8:3. But, once we agree on my 11-point argument above, then your claim here stands disconfirmed.

It doesn't matter if "Torah" is explicitly used in Dt. 8:3. You can REFER to an entity in MANY ways, in language.

Do we agree?



No, we don't.

If not, then which of the 11 premises do you challenge?​


The entire list is a giant logical fallacy based on a false premise.



You wrote: "Matthew, who does use the Greek 'nomos' when referring to Torah..."

My response: Sure, "nomos" can refer to the Torah of Moses. But other terms can too! Let's not be so naive that we pretend that "nomos" is the ONLY Greek term that can ever refer to Torah!

For example, 2 Ti. 3:16 refers to Torah, obviously, even though "nomos" is not explicitly used.
Is "Torah" included in "all Scripture"? Of course!


Torah is a written history and law - it is a part of Scripture. Of course it is included in 'all Scripture'. That does not move your argument that 'rhema' means Torah one iota.


You conclude [about rhema]: "Jesus was NOT referring to the Law, and neither was Moses. "

My response: Your conclusion, here, is disconfirmed by my 11-point argument above.

Which of the 11 premises do you dispute?

Or what logical structure do you challenge?

If not...then my 11-point argument stands firm, REFUTING your apparent view that "rhema" does not refer to that which includes the written Torah of Moses.


I repeat: The entire list is a giant logical fallacy based on a false premise.

You wrote: "Moses was, in Deut. 8:3, referring to a time before the Law was given..."

My response: Ok...but the APPLICATION carries over all the way into the time of Mt. 4:4 (which INCLUDES a very large time period, including the time during which Torah came forth from YHVH's mouth). AND, my 11-point argument stands firm in view of this consideration.


The point was that Deut. 8:3 and Mt. 4:4 derive their meaning outside of the context of Torah. Contrary to what Torah folk typically believe, Torah is not the center of everything in the Scriptures, Christ Jesus is.



Therefore, the fact that "manna" preceded the giving of Torah is NOT a disconfirmation of my position. The fact that Dt. 8:3 refers to the time of the "manna" does not disconfirm my position.


It does, however, confirm my position that the verse uses
H4161 - mowtsa', and due to the timing of the verse (before the Law had been given) and the Hebrew word chosen, it was outside of the context of Torah Law and Torah Law was not intended as any part of the meaning.


Sure, Dt. 8:3 referred to a time before Torah was given, BUT it also emphasized a GENERAL PRINCIPLE which applies all the way until the time of Mt. 4:4 and beyond. AND, application of the principle leads to the conclusion I've detailed here.

What's the principle? That we LIVE by that which comes from God. And as I've shown, the Torah of Moses comes from God.

CONCLUSION: Can we FINALLY agree that you're wrong?

Can we FINALLY agree that Mt. 4:4 has Jesus affirming that we LIVE by that which includes the written Torah of Moses?

best...
BibleGuy


No, we do not agree. You stating a false interpretation over and over and over does not make it true. You're not being honest with the language, Bible Guy.

​-JGIG


 
Nov 22, 2015
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#52
.

(snip)

The point was that Deut. 8:3 and Mt. 4:4 derive their meaning outside of the context of Torah. Contrary to what Torah folk typically believe, Torah is not the center of everything in the Scriptures, Christ Jesus is.

(snip)



Well said JGIG! The above statement to me the crux of this whole law-keeping discussion which perverts the true gospel of the grace of Christ.

They want to use Christ to take them back to the torah. What an insult to the Lord. As Romans 7:1-6 talks about - when we go back to the law when we are joined to Another which is Christ - we are committing spiritual adultery.

This picture accurately depicts what is happening.

adultery-3.jpg

 
P

popeye

Guest
#53
I am delighted at the work JGIG has done here in refuting the obvious heresies of BibleGuy. Plus, she is actually discussing the Bible, in context, while answering the 24 or 36 or whatever points of BG. So a Bible discussion in the Bible Discussion Forum?
Awesome, I say.

I know the internet is supposed to be a place for a one line answer followed by some emoticons. No - that is Twitter! But long posts sometimes are important if we are to discuss the material and truly understand where, in this case, BibleGuy has gone so terrribly wrong.

My hope is that people will actually read her comments in this thread, as they are foundational to our faith.
There is always a main point in false doctrine that is its core foundation.

For example. The cessationist is proven false by a single miracle,but his doctrine has no scriptural proof.

He must START from a position. He cannot start from the word of God,because he has to swat away evidence that God does indeed do miracles galore.
 
Last edited:

JGIG

Senior Member
Aug 2, 2013
2,295
167
63
#54
119 Ministries presented: . . .
Have a reply nearly finished on this, but will have to complete it later this afternoon. Then hopefully I'll be able to address a few more questions/issues from BibleGuy.

Back later,
-JGIG
 
P

popeye

Guest
#55
If bg is perverting John 1 then he is cultic not Christian.

So,bg,who is Jesus?

Is he God?
 
May 19, 2016
417
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#56
Hello JGIG,

We're getting closer now!

I want to understand precisely, and in better clarified detail, WHY you reject my reasoning.

I wrote:

1. Dt. 8:3 refers to that which comes forth from YHVH.
2. YHVH's commands come from YHVH.
3. YHVH's commands are contained in the written Torah of Moses (1 Ki. 2:3).
4. The written Torah of Moses comes from YHVH (from 2 and 3).
5. Dt. 8:3 refers to that which INCLUDES the written Torah of Moses (from 1 and 4).
6. The LXX uses "rhema" (in Greek, Dt. 8:3) to refer to that which comes from YHVH.
7. "Rhema" (Dt. 8:3, LXX) refers to that which INCLUDES the written Torah of Moses (from 5 and 6).
8. "Rhema" (Mt. 4:4) is simply a citation of the Dt. 8:3 passage.
9. "Rhema" (Mt. 4:4) refers to that which INCLUDES the written Torah of Moses (from 7 and 8).
10. Jesus said we LIVE by that "rhema" (Mt. 4:4).
11. Therefore, Jesus said we LIVE by that which INCLUDES the written Torah of Moses (from 9 and 10).




WHICH of these eleven premises do you reject?

Please state the numbered premise you reject.

Be CLEAR and SPECIFIC: WHICH NUMBERED PREMISE?

I don't want to put words into your mouth...

I need to understand PRECISELY which of these 11 premises you reject.

Then we can examine PRECISELY the rational basis (or lack thereof) for your rejection.


CONCLUSION: WHICH NUMBERED PREMISE do you reject?


You wrote: "I reject the part where you don't go to the original language for the verse your referring to to define the word and then say that something 'refers to' (not defines) your word of choice."

My response: So WHICH NUMBERED PREMISE are you therefore rejecting?

Is it Premise 6 that you reject?

best...
BibleGuy

 
H

HisHolly

Guest
#57
Matthew 13:52
Acts 15: 24-29

Any argument made with words unlead by the spirit will always lead to a long exchange of just words..
Anyone who opposed BG argument that we are to follow the law please explain why these verses exist if indeed we need not to refer to it
Grace in no way negates our duty to follow everything that God requires in His law.
As I always state, God is a King.
Kingdoms have order. If not why waste time and make a Bible full of instructions if the only things we must do are believe in Christ and rest that He'll do all the work.. it's foolishness
 
Mar 28, 2016
15,954
1,528
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#58
Matthew 13:52
Acts 15: 24-29

Any argument made with words unlead by the spirit will always lead to a long exchange of just words..
Anyone who opposed BG argument that we are to follow the law please explain why these verses exist if indeed we need not to refer to it
Grace in no way negates our duty to follow everything that God requires in His law.
As I always state, God is a King.
Kingdoms have order. If not why waste time and make a Bible full of instructions if the only things we must do are believe in Christ and rest that He'll do all the work.. it's foolishness
Amen without the grace of God no man can work to please Him .We can because we have entered his eternal rest in Christ.

Dead men as unconverted can do no work.

James 2:12 So speak ye, and so do, as they that shall be judged by the law of liberty.


I agree the law that BG proposes is not the law of liberty, the law of faith ,according to Christ's work of faith the three labor of of His Love demonstrated at Calvary. It is that which sets us free from the law of bondage and sin. So that we can work seeing we have entered his rest. The wage for violating the least of the written law is still eternal never to rise to new spirit life again..


Rom 3:27 Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By "what" law? of works? Nay: but by the "law of faith".

The written law will not enter the promised land .It will be a completely new order.

As shown with David. His work of faith. It allows us to walk at liberty. Not a license to sin but a licence that allows us to work out the salvation he freely give with fear and trembling .Knowing it it is Christ working in us to both will and do His good pleasure. Showing we do have a new heart and a new spirit that will arise on the last day when we then will receive or new incorruptible bodies as those found with no righteous of their own self., unless any man boast in false pride. .

Behold, I have longed after thy precepts: quicken me in thy righteousness. Let thy mercies come also unto me, O LORD, even thy salvation, "according to" thy word. So shall I have wherewith to answer him that reproacheth me: for I trust in thy word. And take not the word of truth utterly out of my mouth; for I have hoped in thy judgments. So shall I keep thy law continually for ever and ever. And I will walk at liberty: for I seek thy precepts. Psa 119:40
 
P

popeye

Guest
#59
Hello JGIG,

We're getting closer now!

I want to understand precisely, and in better clarified detail, WHY you reject my reasoning.

I wrote:

1. Dt. 8:3 refers to that which comes forth from YHVH.
2. YHVH's commands come from YHVH.
3. YHVH's commands are contained in the written Torah of Moses (1 Ki. 2:3).
4. The written Torah of Moses comes from YHVH (from 2 and 3).
5. Dt. 8:3 refers to that which INCLUDES the written Torah of Moses (from 1 and 4).
6. The LXX uses "rhema" (in Greek, Dt. 8:3) to refer to that which comes from YHVH.
7. "Rhema" (Dt. 8:3, LXX) refers to that which INCLUDES the written Torah of Moses (from 5 and 6).
8. "Rhema" (Mt. 4:4) is simply a citation of the Dt. 8:3 passage.
9. "Rhema" (Mt. 4:4) refers to that which INCLUDES the written Torah of Moses (from 7 and 8).
10. Jesus said we LIVE by that "rhema" (Mt. 4:4).
11. Therefore, Jesus said we LIVE by that which INCLUDES the written Torah of Moses (from 9 and 10).




WHICH of these eleven premises do you reject?

Please state the numbered premise you reject.

Be CLEAR and SPECIFIC: WHICH NUMBERED PREMISE?

I don't want to put words into your mouth...

I need to understand PRECISELY which of these 11 premises you reject.

Then we can examine PRECISELY the rational basis (or lack thereof) for your rejection.


CONCLUSION: WHICH NUMBERED PREMISE do you reject?


You wrote: "I reject the part where you don't go to the original language for the verse your referring to to define the word and then say that something 'refers to' (not defines) your word of choice."

My response: So WHICH NUMBERED PREMISE are you therefore rejecting?

Is it Premise 6 that you reject?

best...
BibleGuy

Who is Jesus?

Is he God?
 
R

RobbyEarl

Guest
#60
Jesus is God and has always been God but is now in a glorified flesh body. i mean He eats and drinks and we shall be like Him.