MattTooFor
Well no --they came to belief after the entire presentation. There were the evangelization efforts of the tongues-speakers, who delivered messages in foreign languages...and Peter's message. It all worked together. It is nonsensical to claim the tongues-speakers did not contribute to the evangelization effort.
I can't say for sure that they did not talk about the cross or the resurrection in tongues. I can say for sure that Acts 2 does not tell us whether they did. The comments from those who understood were not about the cross. They were amazed that they heard the Galileans speaking in their own languages.
I object to making a doctrine out of what the text does NOT say. It does NOT say that the disciples preached Christ in tongues. And there are some who insist that speaking in tongues must always be used to preach the Gospel to those who are not saved, the way Acts 2 does NOT say it was used. And they insist that it must not function like I Corinthians says it DOES function.
That's basing doctrine on what scripture does NOT teach and rejecting what it DOES teach. It functioned a bit differently in the two passages.
Besides there being no argument against the simple fact that the "mighty deeds of God" obviously also includes the work of the Cross.....
Raising Jesus from the dead is one of God's mighty works. But so is creation. So is splitting the Red Sea. We aren't told which ones they spoke about. We should not make a doctrine out of what the Bible does NOT say.
Speaking in tongues here functioned similarly to the way signs and wonders functioned in other passages. It drew the people's attention and amazement, so they could hear the message and believe. That is not the 'sign to them that believe not' that Paul addresses in I Corinthians 14, which deals with those who believe not. These people believed.
there is also the biblical fact that "ALL scripture is given by inspiration of God and is profitable...for instruction in righteousness."
This is very true. But it does not say all the ideas that pop into men's head when they read the Bible, which are not taught in the Bible, are profitable for doctrine.
And no matter how badly you turn 1Cor.14 on its head...Paul, in very plain wording, is instructing that you NOT behave in such a way as to cause people to say "you're mad".
I would agree with that part.
They walk away, shaking their heads in dismay over the inappropriate behavior of wailing, screeching, moaning, gibberish-spouting (etc)...and then the Pentecostals triumphantly declare (as I said before)
There are some who call themselves Pentecostals who would agree with those behaviors, and some who would have problems with them. If it's genuine speaking in tongues, cynics may also call it gibberish. 'Gibberish' is a similar concept to calling the one who speaks a barbarian. I don't know if there is any historical evidence to the theory that barbarian comes from the idea that those who did not speak Greek said 'bar bar bar', but I heard it from a well-published ProtoIndoEuropean scholar who taught Historical Linguistics, so if it's conjecture, it's educated conjecture. Of course, his field is full of such theoretical conjecturs about the meaning of words.
"Aha, see how the wicked have little faith!". You make the disingenuous claim that you haven't heard that exact "quote" - lol. You yourself have stated variations of that quote right here in this discussion.
You should tone it back. There was nothing disinegeous to my comment. You were putting a level of harshness in the mouths of Pentecostals that certainly isn't typical. Now, on some of these forums where people really argue and it turns into a quarrel, you might have read something like that. The Pentecostals I grew up around did not questions someone's salvation for not speaking in tongues or for not believing it functioned today. Maybe you spent some times with some Oneness folks who think you will speak in tongues if you are saved. There are a lot of them, but percentage wise, they are small, and typically there isn't that much interaction between them and mainstream Trinitarian Pentecostals.
Yes, I double-checked v.22 and, lo and behold, it's still there, amazingly enough...and telling us that the ability to speak miraculously in various human languages is "a sign to unbelievers" who, when they would hear their own language spoken, became convinced of the Gospel, as they were in Acts 2.
I have a question for you. Are you using the Message Bible? I don't have a copy of the message, at least with me, but the regular translations do not say that in verse 22. You must be reading the idea into it.
And you should have read verses 21 and 23.
21 In the law it is written, With men of other tongues and other lips will I speak unto this people; and yet for all that will they not hear me, saith the Lord.
This verse talks about God speaking with men of other tongues and the people NOT hearing.
22 Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that believe not: but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe.
Notice the use of 'Wherefore', which connects the idea of the people not hearing to tongues being for a sign. Verse 21, the verse about the people not hearing when God speak with men of other tongues tells us something about what type of sign tongue is.
23 If therefore the whole church be come together into one place, and all speak with tongues, and there come in those that are unlearned, or unbelievers, will they not say that ye are mad?
Notice the word 'therefore'. Since speaking in tongues is a sign to them that believe not, the unbeliever or unlearned who hears all speak with tongues in the assembly says 'ye are mad'.
It is a sign to him. He does not believe when he hears it. This passage is definitely NOT about people believing when they hear speaking in tongues.
And this is all part of Paul's encouragement of the Corinthians to edify one another with prophesying. Maybe he is counteracting some of the 'superspirituality' the people had attached to speaking in tongues, the same sort of thing some Charismatics promote today, honestly, and put it in perspective.
Paul does command the church to allow speaking in tongues and interpretation according to the order described in I Corinthians 14:26-28 later on.