Can someone translate these verses for me?

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South_FLA

Senior Member
Jan 1, 2017
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#1
1 John 5:7 - For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.

If I read this verse in Greek or Hebrew would it say the same thing? I've heard that the English version is corrupt.
And if you don't mind, I'd love to have some more verses translated as well.
 

birdie

Senior Member
Sep 16, 2014
505
89
28
#2
1 John 5:7 - For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.

If I read this verse in Greek or Hebrew would it say the same thing? I've heard that the English version is corrupt.
And if you don't mind, I'd love to have some more verses translated as well.
Thanks South_FLA. Unfortunately, I am not conversant in those languages. However, if you go to www.blueletterbible.org you can type in a search for 1 John 5:7 and select concordance translations of each word, if that helps.
 

JaumeJ

Senior Member
Jul 2, 2011
21,228
6,526
113
#3
Hello. I just reviewed this selection in Hebrew. I believe what you are interested in are the three witnesses. From what I gather from the Hebrew, the Father, the Word and the Holy Spirit are correct translations.

As for the three being One, we knew that from many other scriptures, but one that is crystal clear (for me anyways) is Isaiah 9:6.

God bless you........


1 John 5:7 - For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.

If I read this verse in Greek or Hebrew would it say the same thing? I've heard that the English version is corrupt.
And if you don't mind, I'd love to have some more verses translated as well.
 

Angela53510

Senior Member
Jan 24, 2011
11,780
2,943
113
#4
Sorry to tell you this, but the last part of this verse is spurious. That means it was not in the original Greek. Check the NIV and the ESV. It was added very very late, and cannot be found in any of the earliest or even most of the later manuscripts. It is first recorded in the Latin Vulgate, which Jerome translated. And then handed down by the Catholic Church.

When Erasmus was doing a fresh translation of the Greek, he could not find the full phrase in any manuscripts. However the Catholic Church told him it had to remain. The KJV translators adopted much of his translation, including this error.

https://bible.org/article/textual-problem-1-john-57-8

PS I do read both Greek and Hebrew. The NT was not written in Hebrew. Any Hebrew version of the NT is simply a translation, with no more insight than any translation in English or any other language. As for Greek, the article says it is not in any Greek version, only 8 manuscripts after Erasmus in the 1500th century.
 

South_FLA

Senior Member
Jan 1, 2017
575
16
18
28
#5
Hello. I just reviewed this selection in Hebrew. I believe what you are interested in are the three witnesses. From what I gather from the Hebrew, the Father, the Word and the Holy Spirit are correct translations.

As for the three being One, we knew that from many other scriptures, but one that is crystal clear (for me anyways) is Isaiah 9:6.

God bless you........
Okay what about this one?

Colossians 1:15 -Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature:

Is is this one correct as well? What do they mean by "firstborn"? I agree that the Word is eternal, so why is it saying firstborn?

Angela please answer this one too if you'd like, I didn't receive the notification you responded.
 
Last edited:
Nov 12, 2015
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#6
Sorry to tell you this, but the last part of this verse is spurious. That means it was not in the original Greek. Check the NIV and the ESV. It was added very very late, and cannot be found in any of the earliest or even most of the later manuscripts. It is first recorded in the Latin Vulgate, which Jerome translated. And then handed down by the Catholic Church.

When Erasmus was doing a fresh translation of the Greek, he could not find the full phrase in any manuscripts. However the Catholic Church told him it had to remain. The KJV translators adopted much of his translation, including this error.

https://bible.org/article/textual-problem-1-john-57-8

PS I do read both Greek and Hebrew. The NT was not written in Hebrew. Any Hebrew version of the NT is simply a translation, with no more insight than any translation in English or any other language. As for Greek, the article says it is not in any Greek version, only 8 manuscripts after Erasmus in the 1500th century.
So it should read: The Spirit, the water and the blood?
 

JaumeJ

Senior Member
Jul 2, 2011
21,228
6,526
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#8
When I gave you the Hebrew explanation previously, bear in mind always what Angel has posted about the incomplete Greek translation according to her source. Many words are translated from Hebrew and Aramaic into languages without certain understanding of what the words truly mean.

When I give you my results from reading, this should be understood while reading. Until the time of Michaelangelo, people were taught that Moses descended the Mount having horns, only to later discern the word means also rays. Proof of this is his stattue of Moses in the Vatican i believe, complete with horns.......... Unicor is also translated as a type of buffalo.

It is the Holy Spirit Who gives us understanding, even if translations are slightly or greatly erroneous. I studdied Hebrew long after learning by reading and praying and being inspired by the Holy Spirit. The truth is, after teh infilling of the HOly Spirit I knew everything I needed to know concerning my own salvation and understanding.....enything since practically superfluous.

I will look kup that verse and be back. God bless you......PS..Jesus Christ was not a Christian, He was a Jew by Tribe and Hebrew Who teaches the faith of Abraham according to His gospel which had also been given to Abraham...not spoken of much.
 

Zmouth

Senior Member
Nov 21, 2012
3,391
134
63
#9
If I read this verse in Greek or Hebrew would it say the same thing? I've heard that the English version is corrupt.
You won't find that verse in the older Greek or Hebrew manuscripts according to Biblical scholars. It is called the Comma Johanneum that is considered to have resulted from the manuscript written in Latin, which is said to have been a copy of the Greek manuscript.
 

South_FLA

Senior Member
Jan 1, 2017
575
16
18
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#10
You won't find that verse in the older Greek or Hebrew manuscripts according to Biblical scholars. It is called the Comma Johanneum that is considered to have resulted from the manuscript written in Latin, which is said to have been a copy of the Greek manuscript.
Thanks for the explanation. I'm a new follower and I don't know anything about the history of the translations and stuff.
 

JaumeJ

Senior Member
Jul 2, 2011
21,228
6,526
113
#11
If the quest now is for scripture according to varied scholars​, it is now moot to provide a translation of anything unless you want it.
 
Nov 12, 2015
9,112
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#12
Can you explain then what is a good greek interlinear and how I should choose one?
 

South_FLA

Senior Member
Jan 1, 2017
575
16
18
28
#13
Sorry to tell you this, but the last part of this verse is spurious. That means it was not in the original Greek. Check the NIV and the ESV. It was added very very late, and cannot be found in any of the earliest or even most of the later manuscripts. It is first recorded in the Latin Vulgate, which Jerome translated. And then handed down by the Catholic Church.

When Erasmus was doing a fresh translation of the Greek, he could not find the full phrase in any manuscripts. However the Catholic Church told him it had to remain. The KJV translators adopted much of his translation, including this error.

https://bible.org/article/textual-problem-1-john-57-8

PS I do read both Greek and Hebrew. The NT was not written in Hebrew. Any Hebrew version of the NT is simply a translation, with no more insight than any translation in English or any other language. As for Greek, the article says it is not in any Greek version, only 8 manuscripts after Erasmus in the 1500th century.
So what does 1 John 5:7 really say? I'm reading the source you gave me but it is very confusing for me.
 

South_FLA

Senior Member
Jan 1, 2017
575
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#14
If the quest now is for scripture according to varied scholars​, it is now moot to provide a translation of anything unless you want it.
I'm sorry. I'm just looking for answers because these Jehovah's witnesses keep trying to convince me that Jesus isn't God. I just prayed to God to reveal me the truth. Unfortunately, God never answers any questions I ask him. And when I say that I mean he hasn't ever directly spoken to me.
 
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Nov 12, 2015
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#15
So what does 1 John 5:7 really say? I'm reading the source you gave me but it is very confusing for me.
The article seems to be saying that the last part of the verse was added by the church. The part that says: and these three are one.
 

South_FLA

Senior Member
Jan 1, 2017
575
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#16
The article seems to be saying that the last part of the verse was added by the church. The part that says: and these three are one.
Well that sucks. I was gonna show that verse to these JWs.
 

South_FLA

Senior Member
Jan 1, 2017
575
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#20
But shouldn't you be looking into this instead to try to determine why you have never had God answer you Himself?
I do know some verses that say Jesus is God. But these JWs keep debating with different versions of the bible with me so its like we're not reading the same thing and we're getting different interpretations. And people tell me the KJV is corrupt so now I don't even know if what I'm reading is properly translated. And in turn it is sort of killing my faith in God.