Thank you!
thats a great answer, ill share this with others in my circle as well.
I have one question, why did the Jews in Jesus' time say that Jesus is making Himself God when saying: im the son of God.
To me its not claiming diety, but i can see from scripture they took it as such, maybe its the hebrew culture im not familiar enough with, but my guess is that they interpreted it as Jesus is saying "God is my Father, therefore we share the same nature".
Would my guess be correct?
Now that is a great question issachar? Pay close attention because the answer which I will try and shorten but I'm sure you will understand what I'm about to say. You have at John 5:18, "For this cause therefore the Jews were seeking all the more to kill Him, because (or why?) He not only was breaking the Sabbath, but also was calling God His own Father, making Himself equal with God."
Here is the key thing to remember in all of this? What did Jesus say that upset the Jews so much that they wanted to kill Him? I just gave you John 5:18, now look at John 5:17 which is what Jesus said, "But He answered them, My Father is working until now, and I Myself am working." Jesus was calling God His own Father and the Jews understood what He meant and that is one reason they accused Him of blasphemy at other places and especially at His trial at Matthew 26:59-67. Also, look what Jesus says when His parents were looking for Him when was about 12 years old at Luke 2:49, "And He said to themn, "Why is it that you were lookin for Me? Did you not know that I HAD TO BE IN MY FATHERS HOUSE?" Here again He calls God His own Father.
Now, how about at John 8:57-59, you can read that for yourself where the Jews wanted to kill Jesus again because Jesus stated that "before Abraham was born, I am." Let's go to John 10 where at vs30 Jesus literally says, "I and the Father, we are one." On what issachar? Jesus is saying He and His Father are one in nature/essence. They are also one in unity of purpose but vs30 does not mean one in that way. The reason becasue of the reaction of the Jews at John 10:31. "The Jews took up stonews again to stone Him." Why? Here again you can read the record from vs32-38 and you will notice someting, especially at vs36.
"do you say of Him whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, You are blaspheming, BECAUSE I SAID I AM THE SON OF GOD?" Here's the phrase "Son of God" you ask about issachar. The Jews have what is called "idioms." One of their idioms is the idiom, "son of." For example in the OT you have "Sons of the prophets, which refer to men belonging to a prophetic band. You have Sons of affliction (Proverbs 31:5) are afflicted ones. There are hundreds of these idioms. In the NT you have, "Son of perdition (John 17:12) which is the lost one. Judas was called the son of perdition.
And finally you have the "son of" which is possessing a certain nature. In other words, "son of man" clearly exhibits the use of the word "son" to show the possession of a certain nature, Numberss 23:19. this is the one that applies to Jesus Christ as the "Son of Man" and as I said possenssing a certain nature would also include the Son of God which I already explained.
Now let's look at John 19:7, "The Jews answered him, (That is Pontus Pilate), "We have a law, and by that law He/Jesus ought to die (why) because he made Himself out the Son of God." Do you see issachar how the Jews understood what Jesus was claiming when they accused Him of blasphemy for claiming to be the Son of God?
Way back at Matthew 16:13 Jesus ask His disciples, "Who do people say that I am?" Peter says, Thou art the Christ/Messiah, the Son of God." Jesus says His Father revealed this to him. Now look at the trial record at Matthew 26:63 where the high priest Caiaphas ask Jesus to swear as to His identity. "I adjure You by the living God, that You tell us whether You are the Christ/Messiah, the Son of God." In other words, the high priest is asking the one person of Jesus Christ if He is (1) the Christ/Messiah and (2) the Son of God." at Luke 22:70 Jesus says, "Yes, I am."
And to show you the significance of that phrase "Son of God" look at John 20:31 where the Apostle John gives his authroial intent. "but these have been written that you may belieive that Jesus is the (1) Christ/Messiah and (2) the Son of God; and that believing you may have life in His name." So you can now see the importance of what the phrase "Son of God" really means. Lastly, and this is a question to think about? Why would the Jews accuse Jesus of blasphemy for claiming to be the Son of God since the Jews themselves claim to be sons of God? The point is that Jesus Christ was the one and only Son of God in an exclusive way as John 3:16 states. The other problem is the fact that the Jews did not believe Him. Hope this all helps.
IN GOD THE SON,
bluto