Abraham ate with Jesus.
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S
It's not up to me to spin it, it's up to translators to explain it. All I know is that there are two different Greek words that are translated into two different English words which connote what they do.
There are also three different Greek words for love and yet they are all translated in the Bible as love, so you tell me which is more accurate the Greek or the English? Most unilingual people don't realize that languages are totally different as far as colloquialisms are concerned and something in the source language is not always the same in the destination language.
There are also three different Greek words for love and yet they are all translated in the Bible as love, so you tell me which is more accurate the Greek or the English? Most unilingual people don't realize that languages are totally different as far as colloquialisms are concerned and something in the source language is not always the same in the destination language.
ahem... just so you know, the man to whom you replied is far from 'unilingual'.
(he's fluent in English, Spanish, French, Hebrew, and forgive me if i left one or two out, Jaume
)i daresay he understands better than most of us that idioms are difficult to translate.
but Gospel isn't an idiom in Greek, you know. maybe this will help:
proeuaggelizomai: to announce good news beforehand (Strongs)
Thayer's Greek Lexicon
STRONGS NT 4283: προευαγγελίζομαι
προευαγγελίζομαι: 1 aorist 3 person singular προευηγγελίσατο; to announce or promise glad tidings beforehand (viz. before the event by which the promise is made good): Galatians 3:8.
S
ahem... just so you know, the man to whom you replied is far from 'unilingual'.
(he's fluent in English, Spanish, French, Hebrew, and forgive me if i left one or two out, Jaume)
i daresay he understands better than most of us that idioms are difficult to translate.
but Gospel isn't an idiom in Greek, you know. maybe this will help:
proeuaggelizomai: to announce good news beforehand (Strongs)
Thayer's Greek Lexicon
STRONGS NT 4283: προευαγγελίζομαι
προευαγγελίζομαι: 1 aorist 3 person singular προευηγγελίσατο; to announce or promise glad tidings beforehand (viz. before the event by which the promise is made good): Galatians 3:8.
(he's fluent in English, Spanish, French, Hebrew, and forgive me if i left one or two out, Jaume
)i daresay he understands better than most of us that idioms are difficult to translate.
but Gospel isn't an idiom in Greek, you know. maybe this will help:
proeuaggelizomai: to announce good news beforehand (Strongs)
Thayer's Greek Lexicon
STRONGS NT 4283: προευαγγελίζομαι
προευαγγελίζομαι: 1 aorist 3 person singular προευηγγελίσατο; to announce or promise glad tidings beforehand (viz. before the event by which the promise is made good): Galatians 3:8.
Is he not capable of defending himself? Besides I wasn't accusing him of anything as you seem to imply. I was stating a fact about unilingual people. I have not in lingual. Announcing good news that's not always relate to Jesus Christ but the Gospel of Jesus Christ does. The actual issue at hand was that Jesus existed before he actually did which is not factual. Jesus was born to Mary as indicated in the gospel of Matthew and he did not exist before that. He was conceived by Mary through the seed of the Holy Spirit. He was born incarnated as the Word of God.
Wait a minute stan? Since your the one that claimed there are two different Greek words it is you that has to explain what those two different words mean. So go ahead and give us all here the two Greek words along with their definitions and please explain the difference between the two words? It is "NOT" up to me to find a Greek scholar because your the one making the claim they have different meanings. Go ahead "Oh wise one" I await your answer?
IN HIM,
bluto
IN HIM,
bluto
Ok stan, here's the site I got my information. https://bible.org/question/what-does-term-%E2%80%9Cgospel%E2%80%9D-mean Your right, I did make a mistake by not giving you the site. Now, here is something else you said that I totally agree with. You said, "The actual issue at hand was that Jesus existed before he actually did which is not factual."
As you know and as you have obviously avoided I addressed this issue in detail. You never said one word about what I posted but as is your habit changed the subject. Your view is that Jesus Christ did not preexist His incarnation as a man and I maintai Jesus Christ did preexist His incarnation, not as a man in a permanent sense like His incarnation but as the angel of the Lord who is identified as God. Can you please explain who Micah 5:2 is referring? Can you also expain Colossians 1:13-16 which states "For by Him all things were created in the heavens and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities--all things have been created by Him and for Him." And vs17 states, "And He is before all things, and in Him all things hold together."
Who is the "Him" in the verses stan and how do you explain that He did not preexist His incarnation since He created all things BEFORE He incarnated?
IN HIM,
bluto
As you know and as you have obviously avoided I addressed this issue in detail. You never said one word about what I posted but as is your habit changed the subject. Your view is that Jesus Christ did not preexist His incarnation as a man and I maintai Jesus Christ did preexist His incarnation, not as a man in a permanent sense like His incarnation but as the angel of the Lord who is identified as God. Can you please explain who Micah 5:2 is referring? Can you also expain Colossians 1:13-16 which states "For by Him all things were created in the heavens and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities--all things have been created by Him and for Him." And vs17 states, "And He is before all things, and in Him all things hold together."
Who is the "Him" in the verses stan and how do you explain that He did not preexist His incarnation since He created all things BEFORE He incarnated?
IN HIM,
bluto
S
Thanks for clarifying.
I didn't avoid addressing this I simply addressed what I thought was necessary in your onerous past posts. Matt 2:6 clearly shows Micah 5:2 refers to the Messiah/King of Righteousness being born in Bethlehem, so I don't know why you would think that would be problematic? Pretty sure you don't need me to explain that to you.
John 1:14 clearly states that The Word became flesh and dwelt among us. That's what scripture says not me and you steadfastly avoid what John 1:14 says. Who is John 1:14 referring to?
Obviously Jesus couldn't pre-exist himself if he was born at that time. Before Jesus was born, part of his hypostasis existed as The Word, not as Jesus. If you don't understand the hypostatic nature of Jesus then you should study up on it because I'm not a very good teacher when it comes to stuff like that. It was not a problem for me to comprehend.
In Colossians 1 Paul is referring to Jesus as the incarnated Word of God and yes The Word is what created everything. John 1:3
Paul's not referring to the human Jesus but the incarnated Word within Jesus. If you don't believe that then you better throw out the Book of John because you don't believe the Book of John, especially chapter 1. If you can show any place in the Bible that the word existed as a hypostatic being before Jesus was actually born then please go ahead and show us.
I didn't avoid addressing this I simply addressed what I thought was necessary in your onerous past posts. Matt 2:6 clearly shows Micah 5:2 refers to the Messiah/King of Righteousness being born in Bethlehem, so I don't know why you would think that would be problematic? Pretty sure you don't need me to explain that to you.
John 1:14 clearly states that The Word became flesh and dwelt among us. That's what scripture says not me and you steadfastly avoid what John 1:14 says. Who is John 1:14 referring to?
Obviously Jesus couldn't pre-exist himself if he was born at that time. Before Jesus was born, part of his hypostasis existed as The Word, not as Jesus. If you don't understand the hypostatic nature of Jesus then you should study up on it because I'm not a very good teacher when it comes to stuff like that. It was not a problem for me to comprehend.
In Colossians 1 Paul is referring to Jesus as the incarnated Word of God and yes The Word is what created everything. John 1:3
Paul's not referring to the human Jesus but the incarnated Word within Jesus. If you don't believe that then you better throw out the Book of John because you don't believe the Book of John, especially chapter 1. If you can show any place in the Bible that the word existed as a hypostatic being before Jesus was actually born then please go ahead and show us.
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[h=1]What is a theophany? What is a Christophany?[/h]
https://www.gotquestions.org/theophany-Christophany.html <---- link
https://www.gotquestions.org/theophany-Christophany.html <---- link
S
i'm neither his tag team partner nor his wife, but i have been blessed to have him as a friend these four years.
of course the Lord Jesus existed before the incarnation.
see John 1.
of course the Lord Jesus existed before the incarnation.
see John 1.
John 1 says The Word, not Jesus. John 1:14 says that The Word became flesh, i.e. Jesus. The Word has always existed but Jesus started his existence when he was born as the Bible clearly shows.
If you study your Bible you will see that the word existed or was manifested as a human being in Genesis 14 and was called Melchizedek.