1 peter 1:19

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Nov 12, 2015
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#1
What purpose would there be in Jesus going to talk with the spirits of the disobedient who are now in prison? Any thoughts?

Also, why is the word "now" in italic print in my bible? What is the reason for the italics? Is it because they aren't certain the word should be there or because...there's no real english word to convey the greek word...? I've always wondered but never asked.
 

mailmandan

Senior Member
Apr 7, 2014
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#2
Did you mean 1 Peter 3:19? Jesus "made proclamation" to the spirits in prison. The word translated "proclaimed" means "to publicly declare" or "to herald." Jesus proclaimed His victory to the spirits in prison. They had lost, and He had won. Praise God!
 
Nov 12, 2015
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#3
Ah, yes, that's the one mr postman.
Yes, my translation also says, made proclamation. Just wondering why it would have been done I guess.
At first I thought they got some sort of second chance but then that word "now" connotes that "at this time" they are in their prison and that was written after the fact of the proclamation.

So I just wondered why He would go announce to them that He won and then leave. Of course, to human thinking, it's like..."neener-neener." But that's just stupid human thinking and way of acting, like rubbing it in at a win. It's not Jesus for sure.

I guess I was wondering if anyone knows of any other vs that ties in with this one because I can't recall any. It appears to me to be a stand-alone verse, one of those that I can't delve into further because there isn't another one that is similar or can be connected.
 
Dec 19, 2009
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#4
What purpose would there be in Jesus going to talk with the spirits of the disobedient who are now in prison? Any thoughts?

Also, why is the word "now" in italic print in my bible? What is the reason for the italics? Is it because they aren't certain the word should be there or because...there's no real english word to convey the greek word...? I've always wondered but never asked.
I see no italics in my version of the Bible (Revised Standard Version). Jesus wanted to save those who had strayed.

[18] For Christ also died for sins once for all, the righteous for the unrighteous, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh but made alive in the spirit;
[19] in which he went and preached to the spirits in prison,
[20] who formerly did not obey, when God's patience waited in the days of Noah, during the building of the ark, in which a few, that is, eight persons, were saved through water. 1 Pet 3:18-20 RSV
 
Nov 12, 2015
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#5
You know, there is another verse further along that the gospel has been preached even to those who are dead. But my mind wants to look at it as more like...we are all already dead before we receive His Spirit. Yet it does seem to tie into the previous verse...it's kind of odd.

It's 4:6 that I am referring to.
 
Nov 12, 2015
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#6
You know, on second thought, I do want to lean toward thinking the gospel was preached to the dead at that time...because it would not seem fair to not get a chance to hear the gospel for all men. It does seem fair of God to give them the same opportunity instead of saying that they just got a bum deal and we got a good deal.
 
Nov 12, 2015
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#7
In other words, their salvation was based on an obedience to the law, which we always hear was impossible to do without any stumble but our salvation is not based on that obedience to the law. Too bad, so sad, we got the help of the Spirit to the effecting of an inward obedience but they never got that help or that better way and they're going to destruction.
 
Dec 2, 2016
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#8
Folks like to change this place in the bible. In my own words, when Jesus died, then in His Spirit form, he went into a particular place that was called a holding place, and there he proclaimed the gospel to some people who had died in Noah's flood. They were obviously given a chance to be saved. I think it was the people who were trying to follow God but did not measure up to the standard set by God that would have allowed them to be saved, but could be saved by Jesus sacrifice. Most of the people before the flood were wicked, but this was obviously a small group that were seeking God but not up to standard. Now lots of folks will try to tell you the bible does not say this because they don't like what it is saying, they are wrong.
 
Dec 12, 2013
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#9
THE key is found in the statement...

who once were disobedient, when the patience of God kept waiting in the days of Noah, during the construction of the ark, in which a few, that is, eight persons, were brought safely through the water.

Jesus preached to those who were in paradise<---Abraham's bosom and there were believers who perished in the flood due to their disobedience....<--regardless of those who reject this....
 
Nov 1, 2016
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#10
Re: 1 peter 3:19

View 1:
When Noah was building the ark, Christ 'in spirit' was in Noah preaching repentance and righteousness through him to unbelievers who were on the earth then but are now 'spirits in prison' (people in hell).

View 2:
After Christ died, he went and preached to people in hell, offering them a second chance of salvation.

View 3:
After Christ died, he went and preached to people in hell, proclaiming to them that he had triumphed over them and their condemnation was final.

View 4:
After Christ died, he proclaimed release to people who had repented just before they died in the flood, and led them out of their imprisonment (in Purgatory) into heaven.

View 5:
After Christ died (or: after he rose but before he ascended into heaven), he travelled to hell and proclaimed triumph over the fallen angels who had sinned by marrying human women before the flood.

Read more here...

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spirits_in_prison

In case One believes in the highlighted, I offer these verses...

Revelation 2:10
"Fear none of those things which thou shalt suffer: behold, the devil shall cast some of you into prison, that ye may be tried; and ye shall have tribulation ten days: be thou faithful unto death, and I will give thee a crown of life"

Isaiah 61
"The Spirit of the Lord GOD is upon me; because the LORD hath anointed me to preach good tidings unto the meek; he hath sent me to bind up the brokenhearted, to proclaim liberty to the captives, and the opening of the prison to them that are bound"


 
Nov 12, 2015
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#11
He addresses the ancient world in 2 peter also...I guess it's going to remain mysterious to me. :)
 

Desertsrose

Senior Member
Oct 24, 2016
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#12
What purpose would there be in Jesus going to talk with the spirits of the disobedient who are now in prison? Any thoughts?

Also, why is the word "now" in italic print in my bible? What is the reason for the italics? Is it because they aren't certain the word should be there or because...there's no real english word to convey the greek word...? I've always wondered but never asked.

Hi Stunned,

The now that's italicized was added for your understanding to help the text along.

I actually like to read the scriptures without the words that aren't part of the original manuscripts. I don't always think the added words are helpful and could lead one to a wrong conclusion.
 

Magenta

Senior Member
Jul 3, 2015
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#13
In other words, their salvation was based on an obedience to the law, which we always hear was impossible to do without any stumble but our salvation is not based on that obedience to the law. Too bad, so sad, we got the help of the Spirit to the effecting of an inward obedience but they never got that help or that better way and they're going to destruction.
Their faith has been counted as righteousness. Did not all break the law in some manner?
 
Nov 12, 2015
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#14
Their faith has been counted as righteousness. Did not all break the law in some manner?
So what has changed then in the new covenant except that one does not have to present blood sacrifices anymore? We have the help of the Holy Spirit who makes us obedient to the law in our inner man. They did not have this help? And if they didn't, then why do we get the better deal and they get the harder deal? Not saying I think this is true. Saying I think our doctrines make it appear so.
 
G

GaryA

Guest
#15
In other words, their salvation was based on an obedience to the law, which we always hear was impossible to do without any stumble but our salvation is not based on that obedience to the law. Too bad, so sad, we got the help of the Spirit to the effecting of an inward obedience but they never got that help or that better way and they're going to destruction.
Their salvation was not based on obediance to the law. The law was only the teacher. Their salvation was based on the same exact thing ours is -- belief and faith. Only, they "looked forward" while we "look back"...

They could not be told the 'Gospel' in the same detail as we now know it, for obvious reasons. Had Satan known the details of God's Plan, he would have tried to prevent it. Nonetheless, the "Gospel message" was present in the 'details' of all they had to do. You can see it in the design of the tabernacle / temple. You can see it in the directives of the law. Everything pointed to Christ, without actually indicating point-blank the specific intent ( in terms of the [ exact ] method by which He would accomplish salvation for Israel - and all men ) and [ all of ] the particular details of His first coming.

They believed and were saved by faith.

We believe and are saved by faith.

There is no difference, from a strictly 'salvation' perspective.

:)
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
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#16
Also, why is the word "now" in italic print in my bible? What is the reason for the italics? Is it because they aren't certain the word should be there or because...there's no real english word to convey the greek word...? I've always wondered but never asked.
words in italics ((all over in the KJV, and some other versions)) are words that are actually not in the Greek or Hebrew at all -- they are words the translators inserted according to interpretation, to make the English flow better, because the work of translating from one language to another isn't always a one-to-one kind of process.

in Greek, it may make perfect sense not to use some word that in English the grammar would be improper without. sometimes a word like this is implied by the grammar or the context, and sometimes it is inserted on pure speculation about the intent of the text, trying to clarify the thought for an English speaker.

some people argue you should cross out every italicized word, because none of them are actually in the original language, and all are additions to the scripture. certainly some of them can cause a different understanding of certain passages if they are there or if they are not. i don't rly have a comment about that...

but anyhow, that is why the word "
now" is italicized in the version you are reading. because it is not actually there in the original scripture. i don't know whether it's implied by verb tense or something or not in this particular case.
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
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#17

Hi Stunned,

The now that's italicized was added for your understanding to help the text along.

I actually like to read the scriptures without the words that aren't part of the original manuscripts. I don't always think the added words are helpful and could lead one to a wrong conclusion.
. . . and if post had fully read the thread carefully, he would have seen that this sis had already explained about the italics. doh

:)
 
Nov 12, 2015
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#18
I have noticed that "even" seems to have had more the meaning of "and" to them in some places. Like they were adding to or expounding rather than using it as we use it. Can't think of an example right now but I've gotten that sense more than once when I was reading.
 

OneFaith

Senior Member
Sep 5, 2016
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#19
What purpose would there be in Jesus going to talk with the spirits of the disobedient who are now in prison? Any thoughts?

Also, why is the word "now" in italic print in my bible? What is the reason for the italics? Is it because they aren't certain the word should be there or because...there's no real english word to convey the greek word...? I've always wondered but never asked.
I think you mean 1 Peter 3:19. See back in the days of Noah, when they were saved by the ark, they"re salvation was not complete- just postponed. Only one thing saves from sin- and that is Christ's blood, but He hadn't died yet. Christ died once for all people- whether they were in the past, present, or future. To those who obeyed God in their lifetime, according to the covenant that they personally lived under, the blood of Christ was applied.

You know how they say "Actions speak louder than words."? Well, actions speak, and by dying on the cross and resurecting to life, He proclaimed to all that the dividing curtain has been torn down, and now the Most Holy Place (Heaven/God's presence) is now open not only to the High Priest (Christ) but for all who are in the Holy Place (Christ's church) the way is now open to enter the most holy place. (We can now be free of satans prison and can go to heaven).

Jesus said "How can a man rob a strong man's house, unless he first ties up the strong man?" What Jesus meant is Satan is a strong man, and like Robin Hood, Jesus must first bind his power before he can rob us back from him. We are no longer satan's prisoners, death no longer has dominion over us. Because...

As Genesis 3:15 states, "He will crush your head and you will strike His heel." If someone strikes the heel of your foot, it will hurt, but you will heal and live on. But if someone crushes your head, you no longer have power to do anything- ever again. The bruised heel was Jesus dying on the cross, and by doing so Jesus took away satans power to cause spiritual death for those saved in Christ.

So we were once imprisoned, like those in slavery in Egypt. But just as they were saved through water (parting the sea), or like how they were saved through water in Noah's ark, we are saved spiritually through water (not by water) when we are baptized into Christ (Romans 6:3). Because Christ shed His life-saving blood in His death- and we come in contact with it when we are baptized into His death.
 
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Magenta

Senior Member
Jul 3, 2015
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#20
So what has changed then in the new covenant except that one does not have to present blood sacrifices anymore? We have the help of the Holy Spirit who makes us obedient to the law in our inner man. They did not have this help? And if they didn't, then why do we get the better deal and they get the harder deal? Not saying I think this is true. Saying I think our doctrines make it appear so.
Jesus said ours was a better covenant. I would hate to have lived thousands of years ago, or even hundreds, under the law, such that it was. We are not under the law, for it has been nailed to the cross of Christ, who fulfilled all the requirements of the law, lived a blameless life, and gave Himself willingly as a payment for sin under the requirements of the law.

We have made so much progress and gained much freedom and yet there remains the struggle for ultimate control and power, mostly through governments, which are meant to serve as well as lead, yet they are prey to many forces that seem to have questionable motives, some simply pecuniary. Yet no matter how much progress we make, much is always lacking, and I see this so much clearer in today's polarized political climate. It is interesting to realize the climate has always been polarized. It never used to interest me much before, but world conditions from a Christian perspective especially, have really made me sit up and take notice.
Humanity, at least in what we know as the western world, seems to have reached an impasse, and nothing short of Christ's return will suffice, for man is deeply flawed in his fallen state.