Son's of God Genesis 6:1-8

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G00WZ

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May 16, 2014
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The fallen angels in genesis 6:1-8 are sons of God, and they were interbreeding with women and causing nephilim/ giants/ and other random abominations... They call them the sons of God because they are male (because they saw that daughters of humans were beautiful) and they are also spirit, and of the same substance of God, and they held the status of demigod from a humans perspective. These sons of God are not to be confused with Jesus the only begotten son of God John 3:16 and Matthew 3:17.
 

trofimus

Senior Member
Aug 17, 2015
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It's all there because God has a sense of humor.
He wants to see you make believe you know the answer and call them angels.
Then he can have a good laugh at your expense.
You don't think he made you for nothing, do you?
I hope that His sense of humor is not this one :)
 

valiant

Senior Member
Mar 22, 2015
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Gen 6:1 And it came to pass, when men began to multiply on the face of the ground, and daughters were born unto them,


Gen 6:2 that the sons of God saw the daughters of men that they were fair; and they took them wives of all that they chose.
What does the Scripture SAY. It says MEN began to multiply, and daughters were born to them.
Not Cainites but men. Why should just Cainites be called MEN, and Sethites not be called men?

Then it says 'the bene ha elohim' saw the daughters of men that they were fair, and they took them wives of all that they chose'.

Surely the Sethites could not take their pick among the Cainite women and simply choose them out? It suggests an arrogance unsuited to them. And if they did they joined them in their sinfulness. Thus they were not longer 'clean'. They were no longer 'sons of God'. They had joined the MEN. So it doesn't make sense.

But if the bene Elohim, which elsewhere are directly connected with Satan (Job 2.1) and who approached God, were angelic beings we can see why it should be so. And especially so as men are nowhere elsewhere called bene Elohim in the OT.

Then having had demon intercourse with the angels, the wives were themselves demonised, along with their progeny, as still happens today.




 

Marano

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Dec 7, 2011
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What does the Scripture SAY. It says MEN began to multiply, and daughters were born to them.
Not Cainites but men. Why should just Cainites be called MEN, and Sethites not be called men?

Then it says 'the bene ha elohim' saw the daughters of men that they were fair, and they took them wives of all that they chose'.

Surely the Sethites could not take their pick among the Cainite women and simply choose them out? It suggests an arrogance unsuited to them. And if they did they joined them in their sinfulness. Thus they were not longer 'clean'. They were no longer 'sons of God'. They had joined the MEN. So it doesn't make sense.

But if the bene Elohim, which elsewhere are directly connected with Satan (Job 2.1) and who approached God, were angelic beings we can see why it should be so. And especially so as men are nowhere elsewhere called bene Elohim in the OT.

Then having had demon intercourse with the angels, the wives were themselves demonised, along with their progeny, as still happens today.




I agree with this, but I don't see evidence of it happening today.
 
J

jaybird88

Guest
are the any scripture references to suggest the sons of seth are a righteous line? i am not aware of any. if there is no foundation to build this theory on why is it even here in the first place?
 

Marano

Senior Member
Dec 7, 2011
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are the any scripture references to suggest the sons of seth are a righteous line? i am not aware of any. if there is no foundation to build this theory on why is it even here in the first place?
There's nothing, it seems people want to read that into that text instead of letting the text speak for itself, so yeah people and their assumptions.
 

oldhermit

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Jul 28, 2012
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So.....being consistent with the scriptures.....When JESUS, PAUL, PETER and others quoted or referenced a prophet of OLD...did they not make reference to something that was written before.....?
Yes they did, and usually with a confirmation that it WAS written before.

Can you give three examples where a quote is made by one under inspiration where the written word is not referenced?
Yes. Jude does not say that it was written. He simply says that Enoch prophesied.

or are you saying that JUDE was inspired to give Enoch's quote with NO way to reference the validity of said quote?
That is precisely what I am saying because that is the nature of revelation. It is information that is GOD BREATHED. If it is information provided by the Holy Spirit, why would Jude need to verify the validity of the information? Think about what you are saying CD.

Like he just pulled it out of thin air, and was inspired by GOD to give the quote in JUDE?
No, he did not just "pull it out of thin air." It was not a product of his imagination, nor was it information compiled from tertiary sources. This was information provided by the Holy Spirit.

EITHER way the inference of Jude's quote is applied and compared to SODOM and the statement going after strange flesh.
No, it is not. You misunderstand what Jude said.

and what proof is there that there was no written language during the time of Enoch.....what source do you refer to?
The earliest forms of written language dates to about 3,300 BC and was created by the Sumerians. Enoch was born in the 622nd year after creation and was taken by the Lord in the 987th year after creation. So there is roughly a 1000 years between Enoch and the earliest formation of written language. Jude NEVER confirmed that Enoch ever wrote anything. He only states that Enoch prophesied and then proceeds to reveal that prophesy.
 

oldhermit

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Jul 28, 2012
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are the any scripture references to suggest the sons of seth are a righteous line? i am not aware of any. if there is no foundation to build this theory on why is it even here in the first place?
Noah was of the line of Seth. Bear in mind that time is involved in the disintegration of the God culture and the dominance of the godless culture. You see 120 years pass from the time of God's determination to destroy mankind and the call of Noah to build the ark. It took time for the influence of the daughters of Cain upon the sons of Seth to result in an almost total corruption of society. This is why God warned Israel when they went into Canaan NOT to take the daughters of Canaan as wives because the influence upon God's people would be destructive to the nation and this was precisely what happened.
 
J

jaybird88

Guest
Noah was of the line of Seth. Bear in mind that time is involved in the disintegration of the God culture and the dominance of the godless culture. You see 120 years pass from the time of God's determination to destroy mankind and the call of Noah to build the ark. It took time for the influence of the daughters of Cain upon the sons of Seth to result in an almost total corruption of society. This is why God warned Israel when they went into Canaan NOT to take the daughters of Canaan as wives because the influence upon God's people would be destructive to the nation and this was precisely what happened.
the godless culture would be descended from seth and cain both, it makes little sense to suggest G6 is referring to descendants of seth and cain. Gen even tells us it was the sons of seth that began to profane the name of the Most High.
 

oldhermit

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Jul 28, 2012
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the godless culture would be descended from seth and cain both, it makes little sense to suggest G6 is referring to descendants of seth and cain. Gen even tells us it was the sons of seth that began to profane the name of the Most High.
This perpetuation of digression began many years before Gen 6. When Enoch was still in the flesh between 622 and 987 AC, he had already witnessed the world becoming a very wicked place and he prophesied its destruction as far back as his time. The rise of evil on the world was not the introduction of fallen angels into the world of man. This began in the garden and eventuated over the next 1500 years into the total depravity of both the line of Seth and the line of Cain. Only Noah remained righteous of the line of Seth.
 
Dec 12, 2013
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Yes they did, and usually with a confirmation that it WAS written before.


Yes. Jude does not say that it was written. He simply says that Enoch prophesied.


That is precisely what I am saying because that is the nature of revelation. It is information that is GOD BREATHED. If it is information provided by the Holy Spirit, why would Jude need to verify the validity of the information? Think about what you are saying CD.


No, he did not just "pull it out of thin air." It was not a product of his imagination, nor was it information compiled from tertiary sources. This was information provided by the Holy Spirit.


No, it is not. You misunderstand what Jude said.


The earliest forms of written language dates to about 3,300 BC and was created by the Sumerians. Enoch was born in the 622nd year after creation and was taken by the Lord in the 987th year after creation. So there is roughly a 1000 years between Enoch and the earliest formation of written language. Jude NEVER confirmed that Enoch ever wrote anything. He only states that Enoch prophesied and then proceeds to reveal that prophesy.
Yeah...let's sweep under the rug that the possibility of all written language could have been wiped out in the flood.......and I never misunderstood anything that JUDE said and for every reference you give I can up the ante with numerous men who have doctorates in bible languages that will say the sexual reference is found in Enoch.... ;)

SO...the impasse continues and will continue until the day JESUS enlightens us all

The truth is simple...the whole Sethite lineage deal is nothing but conjecture and assumption as their is not one iota of evidence to prove this.....
 

Gabriel2020

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May 6, 2017
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A tough question deserves a modest answer. We know that Adam was the Son of God , because he was created and born of God by the breath of life. Cain and Abel was born of man,by way of flesh and blood. The sons of God might have been those that God put the Holy Spirit in to walk in his ways.. they all became corrupt ,except for Noah. wicked influence was strong .W among mankind in that day.We know that Jesus was born of God and not by the seed of man, but an holy seed. through the womb of Mary. also scripture states that as many that have received the spirit of God, They are the sons of God. so having his spirit in you,which is the Holy Spirit makes us the sons of God
 
J

jaybird88

Guest
This perpetuation of digression began many years before Gen 6. When Enoch was still in the flesh between 622 and 987 AC, he had already witnessed the world becoming a very wicked place and he prophesied its destruction as far back as his time. The rise of evil on the world was not the introduction of fallen angels into the world of man. This began in the garden and eventuated over the next 1500 years into the total depravity of both the line of Seth and the line of Cain. Only Noah remained righteous of the line of Seth.
this sethite theory hinges on the sons of seth being righteous and godly therefore they must be sons of the Most High. but Gen says it it was the sons of seth that began to profane the name of the Most High. i dont see how this theory works then the scripture says the opposite about the sons of seth.
 

Gabriel2020

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May 6, 2017
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When Moses was describing The giants in the land in those days ,he was not implying that there were giants among regular size people, but instead ,he was really saying according to the size of man in his day and the new world, these people were giants. much bigger than the new world.Noah and his family were among the giants,that is why giants were in the earth after the flood. through generation and for what ever reason, man's genes started to weaken, resulting in smaller size humans, also trees and plants as well, which i believe was in God's plan. no longer allowing man to live for 900 to a 1000 years again. the smaller they are , the shorter the life span. Remember, God did not tell Moses about this, he showed him in visions what it was like. he say for himself. that is why he was upon the mountain for 40 days., not because of the commandments. it did not take 40 days jus to write the commandments.
 
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oldhermit

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Jul 28, 2012
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this sethite theory hinges on the sons of seth being righteous and godly therefore they must be sons of the Most High. but Gen says it it was the sons of seth that began to profane the name of the Most High. i dont see how this theory works then the scripture says the opposite about the sons of seth.
Yes, they did and this is the whole point. This represents a change of status. In Gen 4:25-26, we are told that, "Adam had relations with his wife again; and she gave birth to a son, and named him Seth, for, she said, 'God has appointed me another offspring in place of Abel, for Cain killed him.'To Seth, to him also a son was born; and he called his name Enosh. Then men began to call upon the name of the LORD." Here we see the beginning of the flourishing of the God culture through the line of Seth. We already know the culture of Cain. This God culture seems to have still been in place some 400 years later when Enoch was born and he was a product of this culture. Yet, even in his time Enoch was able to see the rapid disintegration of godliness in the land, and this was almost 400 years before Noah was born. By Gen 6, both lines had descended into a totally derived state and only Noah was left of the line of Seth in whom God found righteousness.
 
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Johnny_B

Senior Member
Mar 18, 2017
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how does a human man, get with a human woman of his own kind, and they produce a giant, not of their own kind?

why does everyone believe it was angels and humans up until 400AD?

how does sons of the Most High, if mankind, present themselves before the Father in Job?

how does sons of the Most High, if mankind, get into a "divine council" in psalm 82?

one has to really flip scripture on its head to make this sethite thing work.

If you think reading in context Genesis 4:11-5:32 does not come out to two genealogies marrying in Genesis 6:2, is flipping Scripture on it's head, you have not read the hoops that have to be jumper through to come up with fallen angel out of the context of those two genealogies. But better yet instead of making rabbit trails, why don't you explain how the context of Genesis 4:11-24 is not Cain's genealogy. How Genesis 4:25-5:32 is not the genealogy of Adam in Seth to carry on the Seed of Eve. How Genesis 6:1 is not the multiplication of Genesis 4:11-24 genealogy and how Genesis 6:2 is not the contextual union of those two genealogies, but they are fallen angels. How God seen the sin of those fallen angels and judges man as wicked for it. Why don't you do that? Instead of trying to make rabbit trails. I would love to read it.
 

Johnny_B

Senior Member
Mar 18, 2017
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1. How is Adam the son of God?
- Adam was created, not begotten by God
- Adam was just a human
- Adam fell into death

2. What "godly line" you are talking about, in the time of Noah, there was only one man righteous - Noah.
- there was no "godly tribe" taking ungodly women
- Bible says all were wicked except of Noah, so why to call them "the sons of God"?
- why is "the" in "the sons of God"?
The same challenge as I made to jaybird applies to you as well.
 

Gabriel2020

Senior Member
May 6, 2017
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there is no righteous line, only that righteous person that walks with God. Enoch was the first righteous man that walked with God,and God did not let him see death. he took him straight up. read the descendants of Adam in genesis 5: 1 through 32.. Even Noah was the next righteous man to walk with God., Noah found grace in the eyes of God, meaning he was the only one that realized how corrupt the world was. He was the man God was searching for to keep from totally destroying all flesh. Noah's sons were not righteous, but shem were the better bloodline for God's plan.Teir jobs were to replenish the earth first.
 
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oldhermit

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Jul 28, 2012
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Yeah...let's sweep under the rug that the possibility of all written language could have been wiped out in the flood.......and I never misunderstood anything that JUDE said and for every reference you give I can up the ante with numerous men who have doctorates in bible languages that will say the sexual reference is found in Enoch.... ;)

SO...the impasse continues and will continue until the day JESUS enlightens us all

The truth is simple...the whole Sethite lineage deal is nothing but conjecture and assumption as their is not one iota of evidence to prove this.....
I think we are finished here DC. Sometimes I don't think you could see through a chain link fence.