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Hi Oldhermit, where does the bible tell us that the sons of God were Seth's descendants and the daughters of men were Cain's descendants?By oldhermit
I. The Disintegration of the God Culture and the Dominance of the Godless Culture, 1-12.
A. What was the cause? The marriage of two very diverse cultures.
1. Sons of God – the descendants of Seth
2. Daughters of men – the descendants of Cain.
B. Results – The abandonment of God.
1. Judgment is pronounced. God gives humanity 120 years until the destruction of the flood.
2. The rise of the Nephilim - This is not necessarily causal since they were already in the land.
3. The collapse of moral ethics. There seems to be a progression of wickedness from verse three. Seems to be an undisclosed amount of time lapsed between verse 3 and verse 12. The heart is now only evil continually. Seems to be no redeeming value left.
4. God is heart-broken. Destruction of all life is pronounced, 7.
5. The earth is filled with violence.
C. God preserves the righteous remnant. God always sees and remembers the righteous, 8. In this, God tempers judgment with mercy.
Hi Oldhermit, where does the bible tell us that the sons of God were Seth's descendants and the daughters of men were Cain's descendants?
Hi Oldhermit, where does the bible tell us that the sons of God were Seth's descendants and the daughters of men were Cain's descendants?
Who are the sons of God described in Genesis 6:1-8?
Why would you think they were anything else?
The view makes no sense to me and I've never seen an argument come close to proving it true.It doesn't and to assume so is to say ALL men were saved and all women were lost....this whole fallacy has no foundation of proof and is pure speculation
"Sons of God" is a term that seems to always applied to men. There does not seem to be any place in scripture where this term is ever applied to angels as many suppose with one possible exception and that is Job 38:6-7 but even this is inconclusive. Scripture must ALWAYS be allowed to define its own use of language.Genesis 6:4 is pretty compelling - sons of God mated with daughters of men and the daughters of men bare giants.
It could be either angels or saved men as both are called the sons of God but saved men don't sire giants.
"Sons of God" is a term that seems to always applied to men. There does not seem to be any place in scripture where this term is ever applied to angels as many suppose with one possible exception and that is Job 38:6-7 but even this is inconclusive. Scripture must ALWAYS be allowed to define its own use of language.
Ok let's say they are men, why are they descendants of Seth and why are daughters of men descendants of Cain?"Sons of God" is a term that seems to always applied to men. There does not seem to be any place in scripture where this term is ever applied to angels as many suppose with one possible exception and that is Job 38:6-7 but even this is inconclusive. Scripture must ALWAYS be allowed to define its own use of language.
Both Job 1:6 and 2:1 use the designation "the son's of God" and we know that it is referring to angels because Satan appears with them when they present themselves to the Lord.