Son's of God Genesis 6:1-8

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M

Mother5

Guest
#1
Who are the sons of God described in Genesis 6:1-8?
 

oldhermit

Senior Member
Jul 28, 2012
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#2
By oldhermit

I. The Disintegration of the God Culture and the Dominance of the Godless Culture, 1-12.

A. What was the cause? The marriage of two very diverse cultures.

1. Sons of God – the descendants of Seth
2. Daughters of men – the descendants of Cain.

B. Results – The abandonment of God.

1. Judgment is pronounced. God gives humanity 120 years until the destruction of the flood.
2. The rise of the Nephilim - This is not necessarily causal since they were already in the land.
3. The collapse of moral ethics. There seems to be a progression of wickedness from verse three. Seems to be an undisclosed amount of time lapsed between verse 3 and verse 12. The heart is now only evil continually. Seems to be no redeeming value left.
4. God is heart-broken. Destruction of all life is pronounced, 7.
5. The earth is filled with violence.

C. God preserves the righteous remnant. God always sees and remembers the righteous, 8. In this, God tempers judgment with mercy.
 
M

Mother5

Guest
#3
Dear oldhermet,
Thank you very much for your reply (it's hard to call a preshous elder old and hermetic
 
Dec 2, 2016
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#4
With respect to OH, I believe the sons of God were beings(angels) created by God, and they left their living place and came to earth and took human women as wives and had sons by them who were men of unusual ability. This is explained in the OT and backed up in the NT. Anyway, God was very displeased with the angels who did this and placed then in a prison in Hades until judgment day. The obvious question is, how could angels have sex with humans and produce children. Most folks think that angels cannot have sex because in the age to come people will not marry but will be equal to the angels. So because of this conflict some have come up with an alternate explanation which was what OH gave.
 
Nov 23, 2013
13,684
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#5
By oldhermit

I. The Disintegration of the God Culture and the Dominance of the Godless Culture, 1-12.

A. What was the cause? The marriage of two very diverse cultures.

1. Sons of God – the descendants of Seth
2. Daughters of men – the descendants of Cain.

B. Results – The abandonment of God.

1. Judgment is pronounced. God gives humanity 120 years until the destruction of the flood.
2. The rise of the Nephilim - This is not necessarily causal since they were already in the land.
3. The collapse of moral ethics. There seems to be a progression of wickedness from verse three. Seems to be an undisclosed amount of time lapsed between verse 3 and verse 12. The heart is now only evil continually. Seems to be no redeeming value left.
4. God is heart-broken. Destruction of all life is pronounced, 7.
5. The earth is filled with violence.

C. God preserves the righteous remnant. God always sees and remembers the righteous, 8. In this, God tempers judgment with mercy.
Hi Oldhermit, where does the bible tell us that the sons of God were Seth's descendants and the daughters of men were Cain's descendants?
 

oldhermit

Senior Member
Jul 28, 2012
9,142
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#6
LOL I am afraid I may not be all that precious nor am I an elder in the Lord's Church. I am just a middle aged retired preacher. My brother gave me the hashtag of oldhermit because I am rather reclusive.
 

oldhermit

Senior Member
Jul 28, 2012
9,142
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#7
Hi Oldhermit, where does the bible tell us that the sons of God were Seth's descendants and the daughters of men were Cain's descendants?
Why would you think they were anything else?
 
M

Mother5

Guest
#8
Lol brothers are like that! Good to know you have a good sence of humor!
 
Dec 12, 2013
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#9
Hi Oldhermit, where does the bible tell us that the sons of God were Seth's descendants and the daughters of men were Cain's descendants?
It doesn't and to assume so is to say ALL men were saved and all women were lost....this whole fallacy has no foundation of proof and is pure speculation
 

Ahwatukee

Senior Member
Mar 12, 2015
11,162
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#10
Who are the sons of God described in Genesis 6:1-8?
Hello Mother5,

The son's of God in Gen.6:1,4 is another designation for angels. This same designation is used in Job 1:6, 2:1.

The scripture in Gen.6:1 is in reference to the angels who had take for themselves wives from the progeny of mankind. And by doing so they defiled them selves. These son's of God, the angels, are most likely the same angels that both 2 Peter 2:4 and Jude 6 refer to who were put in chains of darkness in Tartarus under the earth until the day of judgment.

It was due to the offspring of these angels who became giants, as well as all that the angels taught mankind, and thereby corrupting the inhabitants of the earth. These were the major reasons for the flood. The world had been altered by the angels, the son's of God.

Hope this was beneficial.
 
Last edited:
Nov 23, 2013
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#11
Why would you think they were anything else?
Genesis 6:4 is pretty compelling - sons of God mated with daughters of men and the daughters of men bare giants.

It could be either angels or saved men as both are called the sons of God but saved men don't sire giants.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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#12
It doesn't and to assume so is to say ALL men were saved and all women were lost....this whole fallacy has no foundation of proof and is pure speculation
The view makes no sense to me and I've never seen an argument come close to proving it true.
 

oldhermit

Senior Member
Jul 28, 2012
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#13
Genesis 6:4 is pretty compelling - sons of God mated with daughters of men and the daughters of men bare giants.

It could be either angels or saved men as both are called the sons of God but saved men don't sire giants.
"Sons of God" is a term that seems to always applied to men. There does not seem to be any place in scripture where this term is ever applied to angels as many suppose with one possible exception and that is Job 38:6-7 but even this is inconclusive. Scripture must ALWAYS be allowed to define its own use of language.
 
Dec 2, 2016
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#14
Son of God was just about never applied to any man but Adam and Jesus. To be a son of God(except in a metaphoric sense) one CANNOT have a human father. Men were identified by the name of their father, son of God means they came directly from God and not through a human father.
 
M

Mother5

Guest
#15
Dear KJV1611,
Thanks for your take on my question! I was kind of thinking on that line myself. I like to see others points of view to ponder in my heart.
 
M

Mother5

Guest
#16
Dear samuel123,
Interesting and good point!
 

Ahwatukee

Senior Member
Mar 12, 2015
11,162
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#17
"Sons of God" is a term that seems to always applied to men. There does not seem to be any place in scripture where this term is ever applied to angels as many suppose with one possible exception and that is Job 38:6-7 but even this is inconclusive. Scripture must ALWAYS be allowed to define its own use of language.
Both Job 1:6 and 2:1 use the designation "the son's of God" and we know that it is referring to angels because Satan appears with them when they present themselves to the Lord.
 
Nov 23, 2013
13,684
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#18
"Sons of God" is a term that seems to always applied to men. There does not seem to be any place in scripture where this term is ever applied to angels as many suppose with one possible exception and that is Job 38:6-7 but even this is inconclusive. Scripture must ALWAYS be allowed to define its own use of language.
Ok let's say they are men, why are they descendants of Seth and why are daughters of men descendants of Cain?
 

oldhermit

Senior Member
Jul 28, 2012
9,142
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#19
Both Job 1:6 and 2:1 use the designation "the son's of God" and we know that it is referring to angels because Satan appears with them when they present themselves to the Lord.
In these two texts, we see the presentation of the sons of God. The presentation of one's self before God is precisely what those in the Levitical system did who brought their sacrifices to the altar. God told them that when they brought their gifts to the altar he would meet them their and bless them and forgive their sins. This is indicative of an act of worship. There is no reason that this is not simply referring to the worshipers of God - sons of God who lived in the time of Job. It seems rather obvious that Job is one of these and God points him out to Satan and asks have you considered my servant Job? Would this not seem to better fit the context?
 
M

Mother5

Guest
#20
Dear Ahwatukee,
I was just reading in Job this morning (listening really) and will reread that passage.