Benefits of Speaking, Praying, and Singing in Tongues

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shrume

Senior Member
Jun 26, 2017
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I don’t get what the issue is over Paul’s comment that he speaks languages more than anyone ((presumably) anyone he knows of anyway).

Paul was a ‘world traveler’, such as it was in his day – he would have likely spoken, or at least have been marginally familiar with, several languages. That said, in the Mediterranean basin, for the most part he’d really only need one: Greek.
When Paul said he spoke in tongues more that the Corinthian church, he was not talking about speaking languages he knew. He was talking about speaking in tongues, the manifestation of the gift of the Holy Spirit. When a person speaks in tongues, he does not know what he is saying (1 Cor 14:2). If a person understands what he is saying, he is not speaking in tongues.

It certainly was possible to “speak in tongues” before Pentecost
It was not possible to manifest the gift of the Holy Spirit by speaking in tongues before the gift was given, and the gift was not given until the day of Pentecost.

Jesus did not speak in tongues
Correct.
 

shrume

Senior Member
Jun 26, 2017
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It has been possible to speak in divers tongues since Babel.
It was not been possible to speak in tongues before the gift of the Holt Spirit was given, and the gift of the Holy Spirit was not given until the day of Pentecost.

Paul was likely well versed in three tongues. Latin being born a Roman citizen. Hebrew being a Jew and sitting at the feet of Gamaliel. Aramaic as it was the most common language in use at the time.
The languages Paul might have known have nothing to do with his speaking in tongues.
 

stonesoffire

Poetic Member
Nov 24, 2013
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Eli:

~G2241
ἠλί
ēli
ay-lee'
Of Hebrew origin ([H410] with pronoun suffix); my God: - Eli.
Total KJV occurrences: 2

lama:

G2982
λαμά, λαμμᾶ
lama    lamma
lam-ah', lam-mah'
Of Hebrew origin ([H4100] with preposition prefixed); lama (that is, why): - lama.
Total KJV occurrences: 2

sabachthani:

G4518
σαβαχθανί
sabachthani
sab-akh-than-ee'
Of Chaldee origin [H7662] with pronominal suffix; thou hast left me; sabachthani (that is, shebakthani), a cry of distress: - sabachthani.
Total KJV occurrences: 2

G5008
ταλιθά
talitha
tal-ee-thah'
Of Chaldee origin (compare [H2924]); the fresh, that is, young girl; talitha (O maiden): - talitha.
Total KJV occurrences: 1

G2891
κοῦμι
koumi
koo'-mee
Of Chaldee origin [H6966]; cumi (that is, rise!): - cumi.
Total KJV occurrences: 1


Why did the disciples ask Jesus to teach them how to pray? They prayed. There was something different with Jesus.

He is the pattern for His body. He received the anointing of Holy Spirit at His water baptism. Why would He not speak out of His Spirit? That's what you guys are missing.

This is from heaven. Not of earth.


And missing dunamis.

If you have been baptized in Holy Spirit...you will know it whether tongues is manifested or not. Some gift will. And you will know it's not from you.









 

shrume

Senior Member
Jun 26, 2017
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What definition are you using for the word tongues?
The definition of the word tongues is languages.

In the context of our conversation, "tongues" is the manifestation of the gift of the Holy Spirit called speaking in tongues. It is speaking a language you do not know as the utterance (the words) are given to you through the gift of the Holy Spirit that lives in you.
 

shrume

Senior Member
Jun 26, 2017
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Should have added to post 43 that the phrase “Eli, Eli…..” is Aramaic, not Hebrew.
As I understand it, "Eli, Eli" as found in Matthew is Hebrew, "Eloi, Eloi" in Mark is Aramaic.
 

shrume

Senior Member
Jun 26, 2017
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Why did the disciples ask Jesus to teach them how to pray?
Because they wanted to know.

They prayed. There was something different with Jesus.
Not in the way he prayed

He is the pattern for His body. He received the anointing of Holy Spirit at His water baptism. Why would He not speak out of His Spirit? That's what you guys are missing.
What you are missing is that the gift of the Holy Spirit as we have it today was not available before Pentecost. The apostles were told to wait in Jerusalem for the promise of the Father, which had not yet been given.

This is from heaven. Not of earth.
Manifesting the gift of the Holy Spirit is certainly from heaven. It is supernatural.
 

stonesoffire

Poetic Member
Nov 24, 2013
10,665
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I disagree Shrume, but am not going to make it a point of contention with you.

Some say He did...others not. We aren't the only ones with these separate opinions.
 

notuptome

Senior Member
May 17, 2013
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It was not been possible to speak in tongues before the gift of the Holt Spirit was given, and the gift of the Holy Spirit was not given until the day of Pentecost.
Not correct. The Holy Spirit is active in the affairs of men throughout the bible.
The languages Paul might have known have nothing to do with his speaking in tongues.
But tongues are languages so I fail to see your point.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
 

notuptome

Senior Member
May 17, 2013
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The definition of the word tongues is languages.

In the context of our conversation, "tongues" is the manifestation of the gift of the Holy Spirit called speaking in tongues. It is speaking a language you do not know as the utterance (the words) are given to you through the gift of the Holy Spirit that lives in you.
How does the bible define tongues? Any context apart from the bible is not relevant.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
 

shrume

Senior Member
Jun 26, 2017
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Not correct. The Holy Spirit is active in the affairs of men throughout the bible.
Yes, several people in the OT had the Holy Spirit upon them, but they were not BORN of the Holy Spirit, as we are today. And along with the Holy Spirit being born in us came two new manifestations. Nobody spoke in tongues or interpreted before the day of Pentecost.

But tongues are languages so I fail to see your point.
The point is that when a person speaks in tongues he does not know the language he is speaking (1 Cor 14:2).
 

shrume

Senior Member
Jun 26, 2017
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How does the bible define tongues? Any context apart from the bible is not relevant.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
Tongues in the Bible are languages. Look it up, Roger.
 

Kavik

Senior Member
Mar 25, 2017
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43
When Paul said he spoke in tongues more that the Corinthian church, he was not talking about speaking languages he knew. He was talking about speaking in tongues, the manifestation of the gift of the Holy Spirit. When a person speaks in tongues, he does not know what he is saying (1 Cor 14:2). If a person understands what he is saying, he is not speaking in tongues.

In the context of our conversation, "tongues" is the manifestation of the gift of the Holy Spirit called speaking in tongues. It is speaking a language you do not know as the utterance (the words) are given to you through the gift of the Holy Spirit that lives in you.

These are both the modern Pentecostal/Charismatic definition of tongues. There are no Biblical references to tongues that do not describe real language(s); therefore, the languages Paul knew had everything to do with his ability to speak tongues (read “languages”).

Modern T-speech is not language; angelic, heavenly, or otherwise – it is non-cognitive non- language utterance.

The point is that when a person speaks in tongues he does not know the language he is speaking (1 Cor 14:2).

Again, more of a modern Pentecostal/Charismatic understanding of tongues.

Many use 1 Cor. 14:2 as “proof” of tongues being spiritual language(s) – but upon closer examination, it simply describes real language, though a foreign one to the “hearers”. Note that nowhere does the passage state or even remotely suggest that the speaker does not understand what he himself is saying.

To explain it further, think of it this way; if I showed up at a Bible study and began to speak in German, but no one else in the room could speak German, I might impress a few people, but no one would understand me. So if I speak in a language that no one else in the room can speak, I am in fact not speaking to men, but to God (who alone can understand all languages). Anything I say would be a mystery to those in the room. That is what Paul was trying to convey” by people speaking a foreign language at a public worship.

Another way to look at it is this: if I attend a worship service in ‘East Haystack’, Alabama two things are going to be evident: one; there’s only going to be so many people at that service (i.e. there will be a finite given amount of people there) and two; the chances that anyone in East Haystack speaks anything but English is pretty slim to nil. If I start praying aloud in say Lithuanian, there’s no one at that service that’s going to understand a bloody word I’m saying. Even though I’m speaking a real language, no one there will understand my “tongue”. That does not mean or imply that no one else understands Lithuanian; just no one at that particular service. So it ends up being a “real language no one understands” (within that given context). To the people listening to me, I am speaking ‘mysteries” (i.e. ‘we have no clue what you’re saying’) in the Spirit (i.e. I’m praying earnestly from my heart and from deep within my being = praying ‘in the spirit’). I myself however understand every word I’m saying; I’m speaking my native language; you’re the ones who don’t understand.

I think people read into this verse something that simply is not there to fit a modern notion of what Biblical ‘tongues’ are supposed to be.


It was not possible to manifest the gift of the Holy Spirit by speaking in tongues before the gift was given, and the gift was not given until the day of Pentecost.


In the context of Pentecostal/Charismatic Christianity, yes.

However, the only gift given on Pentecost with respect to language was dispensing with the idea of ecclesiastical diglossia; that the proper language for religious instruction, prophesying, etc. was/should be/must be Hebrew; the holy/sacred language of Judaism. The apostles broke from this tradition and spoke to the people in the local vernaculars of Aramaic and Greek (both of which they knew). All Jews there would have spoken one of these languages (if not both, in some cases) as their mother tongue; Jews living in Judea would have been Aramaic speaking (though some were Greek speaking), Jews of the Western Diaspora would have been Greek speaking and Jews of the Eastern Diaspora would have retained Aramaic. The ‘list’ in Acts has nothing to do with languages or linguistic diversity; it’s a list of the lands of the Diaspora (both eastern and western, though two places are inadvertently missed). There are a few schools of thought as to the actual meaning/implications of the list in Acts which are quite interesting, but neither has to do with linguistic diversity.

The apostles were keenly aware that in order for their message to spread, it could not be done in the tradition way of using a language (Hebrew) that hardly anyone knew anymore; but to do so was sort of a cultural social/religious taboo of sorts. For lack of a better way to put it, the Holy Spirit gave them the courage to dispense with this religious/social taboo and to just teach the people in languages they were comfortable with, without fear of any reprise. Some, though, did accuse them of being drunk for doing such a thing - most however were just obviously shocked that such a thing was being done.

The 'miracle' of Pentecost, it may be argues, was the spreading of the message of Jesus in local vernaculars, rather than the expected Hebrew, for the first time in a public setting.

'Tongues' in the Bible are indeed languages- real identifiable languages; not modern T-speech.


With Eloi/Eli……

We're both right - kind of.....There seems to be a mix up depending on what version you use; Mark’s version is Aramaic and Matthew’s version seems to want to combine languages – Mark, being the older version from which Matthew was based upon, seems to have it more accurately as his phrase is all in Aramaic, whilst Matthew is mixing languages; ‘eli’ is Hebrew, but the rest is Aramaic. As you may know, Hebrew and Aramaic are not all that different from each other so there is some definite overlap in words. If it were Hebrew, ‘azabtānī would have been used instead of šəvaqtáni. A great example of the “telephone” game with respect to how Matthew’s Gospel renders the phrase!
 

notuptome

Senior Member
May 17, 2013
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Tongues in the Bible are languages. Look it up, Roger.
Exactly. Tongues are languages. Why is that an issue for you? Do you not speak languages? If you speak something other than languages then you are not speaking tongues.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
 

notuptome

Senior Member
May 17, 2013
15,050
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Yes, several people in the OT had the Holy Spirit upon them, but they were not BORN of the Holy Spirit, as we are today. And along with the Holy Spirit being born in us came two new manifestations. Nobody spoke in tongues or interpreted before the day of Pentecost.


The point is that when a person speaks in tongues he does not know the language he is speaking (1 Cor 14:2).
OT believers were imputed righteousness just like NT believers.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
 

stonesoffire

Poetic Member
Nov 24, 2013
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There's a difference between Aramaic and Chaldean. They are similar but the differences are because of regions. Chaldean is more from places like Iraq and Turkey.

I'm sure the One who created all things can speak any language of His own Holy Spirit that He desires...For that is who He is.

Not to anyone special. Just posting :)
 

shrume

Senior Member
Jun 26, 2017
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Exactly. Tongues are languages. Why is that an issue for you?
It's not.

Do you not speak languages?
Yes. I speak in English and I speak in tongues. I do not know what language I am speaking when I speak in tongues.

If you speak something other than languages then you are not speaking tongues.
That's right.

When a person speaks in tongues he is speaking a language he does not know (1 Cor 14:2).
 

shrume

Senior Member
Jun 26, 2017
2,193
463
83
When Paul said he spoke in tongues more that the Corinthian church, he was not talking about speaking languages he knew. He was talking about speaking in tongues, the manifestation of the gift of the Holy Spirit. When a person speaks in tongues, he does not know what he is saying (1 Cor 14:2). If a person understands what he is saying, he is not speaking in tongues.

In the context of our conversation, "tongues" is the manifestation of the gift of the Holy Spirit called speaking in tongues. It is speaking a language you do not know as the utterance (the words) are given to you through the gift of the Holy Spirit that lives in you.

These are both the modern Pentecostal/Charismatic definition of tongues. There are no Biblical references to tongues that do not describe real language(s); therefore, the languages Paul knew had everything to do with his ability to speak tongues (read “languages”).
That is not true. Tongues are languages. The person speaking in tongues does not know what language he is speaking, or what he is saying. This is why tongues, when spoken in public, must be interpreted.

When Paul said "I speak with tongues more than ye all" he was talking about speaking in tongues, and not about speaking languages he knew.

Modern T-speech is not language; angelic, heavenly, or otherwise – it is non-cognitive non- language utterance.
Speaking in tongues, whether in the first century or the 21st century, is a language of men or of angels.
 

88

Senior Member
Nov 14, 2016
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Benefits of Praying in Tongues/Make the devil mad ***I always hate it when people talk behind my back***the devil doesn't know what you are communicating and it does mess him up***so does worship----he used to be in charge of that and now he is out of the choir...
 

88

Senior Member
Nov 14, 2016
3,517
77
48
Benefits of Praying in Tongues/Getting in Jesus Mode ***no, Jesus did not speak in tongues--since He had perfect communion with the Father***since we are imperfect we can pray in tongues and we are praying the perfect will of God which helps us come into alignment with the Lord***pray in English and pray in tongues and get the benefit of both...