Over the years, I've wanted to try to understand, from the point of view of human events, why Jesus was crucified.
Now, I am NOT making the argument that He should not have been crucified, because that would be a rejection of the Gospel. The Scriptures say that without the shedding of blood, there is no remission of sins. And also that Christ had to be the perfect sacrifice for us. In addition, He said Himself that He must be lifted up (when speaking to Nicodemus).
Now to the point of the death penalty, a few theories have been put forth regarding that:
1. The Romans had taken away ALL death penalty rights from the Jews, meaning that the only way to execute a Jew under Roman occupation would be to crucify that person. Which would explain why the Jews changed the charge against Jesus from blasphemy against God to sedition against Rome.
2. The Romans had allowed the Jews to retain death penalty rights, but they (Jews) wouldn't have been satisfied to have Jesus stoned; they wanted to see Him crucified.
3. The Jews had to ask the Romans for permission to carry out a death sentence; the Romans would then allow the Jews to execute someone according to Jewish law.
Then there is this passage in John: "[FONT="]Then Pilate said to them, 'You take Him and judge Him according to your law.'[/FONT][FONT="]Therefore the Jews said to him, 'It is not lawful for us to put anyone to death,' that the saying of Jesus might be fulfilled which He spoke, signifying by what death He would die." - John 18:31-32. Was Pilate in this instance giving the Jews permission to execute Jesus according to Jewish law?
Then we get into the matter of whether Stephen was stoned to death legally or by mob action. What complicates that situation is that the coats of the executioners were laid at the feet of Saul of Tarsus. Would Saul, a devout Pharisee, allow Stephen to be executed without Roman permission?
Anyone have any insights on this?[/FONT]
Now, I am NOT making the argument that He should not have been crucified, because that would be a rejection of the Gospel. The Scriptures say that without the shedding of blood, there is no remission of sins. And also that Christ had to be the perfect sacrifice for us. In addition, He said Himself that He must be lifted up (when speaking to Nicodemus).
Now to the point of the death penalty, a few theories have been put forth regarding that:
1. The Romans had taken away ALL death penalty rights from the Jews, meaning that the only way to execute a Jew under Roman occupation would be to crucify that person. Which would explain why the Jews changed the charge against Jesus from blasphemy against God to sedition against Rome.
2. The Romans had allowed the Jews to retain death penalty rights, but they (Jews) wouldn't have been satisfied to have Jesus stoned; they wanted to see Him crucified.
3. The Jews had to ask the Romans for permission to carry out a death sentence; the Romans would then allow the Jews to execute someone according to Jewish law.
Then there is this passage in John: "[FONT="]Then Pilate said to them, 'You take Him and judge Him according to your law.'[/FONT][FONT="]Therefore the Jews said to him, 'It is not lawful for us to put anyone to death,' that the saying of Jesus might be fulfilled which He spoke, signifying by what death He would die." - John 18:31-32. Was Pilate in this instance giving the Jews permission to execute Jesus according to Jewish law?
Then we get into the matter of whether Stephen was stoned to death legally or by mob action. What complicates that situation is that the coats of the executioners were laid at the feet of Saul of Tarsus. Would Saul, a devout Pharisee, allow Stephen to be executed without Roman permission?
Anyone have any insights on this?[/FONT]