Did Peter really write 2 Peter?

  • Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.

    If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!

    To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.

Sharp

Senior Member
May 5, 2009
2,565
19
38
#1
I'm hoping to get some input from those who have studied theology about the genuineness of the second epistle of Peter.

Everything I read about the authorship of this epistle claims something like "Virtually all biblical scholars agree that 2 Peter is pseudographical..." or "of all the NT letters 2 Peter's genuineness is most questioned". Its got me a bit worried.

Critics point to things like:

+ difference of style between 1 and 2 Peter,
+ different words used for same meanings between the two letters,
+ the letter was not mentioned by the early church fathers before about the year 150
+ the letter seems to take aim at 2nd century gnosticism

Can anyone who has had a good look into this provide their opinion?

Thanks
 
C

Credo_ut_Intelligam

Guest
#2
I'm hoping to get some input from those who have studied theology about the genuineness of the second epistle of Peter.

Everything I read about the authorship of this epistle claims something like "Virtually all biblical scholars agree that 2 Peter is pseudographical..." or "of all the NT letters 2 Peter's genuineness is most questioned". Its got me a bit worried.

Critics point to things like:

+ difference of style between 1 and 2 Peter,
+ different words used for same meanings between the two letters,
+ the letter was not mentioned by the early church fathers before about the year 150
+ the letter seems to take aim at 2nd century gnosticism

Can anyone who has had a good look into this provide their opinion?

Thanks
First of all, I would say that you shouldn't be worried about whether or not 2 Peter was really written by Peter.

It's true that the majority of biblical scholars do not think 2 Peter was written by Peter, but it's also true (as I recall) that the majority of scholars believe 2 Peter falls into the specific genre of "Testament". This was familiar genre in which a person would write a work on behalf of a well known deceased person (such as Moses). These works were known to be creatively composed "fiction" (in a sense) that give the "famous" person's final words and exhortation.

If this is correct, then the fact that 2 Peter wasn't written by Peter isn't problematic because everyone would have understood that the author wasn't trying to deceive anyone into thinking the epistle (or testament) was actually written by Peter. They would have seen the indicators of the testamental literary genre and recognized it as such. For example, if I begin telling you a story with "Once upon a time..." most people understand that I'm about to tell you a fairy tale.

Naturally, this would mean we don't know who wrote Peter, but then we don't know who wrote Hebrews either (or some of the other books). I would also add that the fact that "the majority of scholars" take some position isn't always significant. That the majority takes a certain position could be attributed to any number of factors that a more conservative scholar might, with more conservative presuppositions, know to be illegitimate. But we shouldn't use this as an excuse to wave off majority opinions just because they disagree with us. We still have to find out why the majority of scholars think what they think. Only then might we be in a position to decide whether their reasons are valid (have they relied too much on naturalistic explanations? Are they be driven by an unfounded bias to find a late date?).

Having said that, I can think of a few ways that we might explain the critical points you mention, but I'm not sure how solid those explanations would be. I'll look into it as I have time and get back to you.
 

Sharp

Senior Member
May 5, 2009
2,565
19
38
#3
Thanks for the response Credo, I look forward to hearing from you again.
 
C

charisenexcelcis

Guest
#4
I'm hoping to get some input from those who have studied theology about the genuineness of the second epistle of Peter.

Everything I read about the authorship of this epistle claims something like "Virtually all biblical scholars agree that 2 Peter is pseudographical..." or "of all the NT letters 2 Peter's genuineness is most questioned". Its got me a bit worried.

Critics point to things like:

+ difference of style between 1 and 2 Peter,
+ different words used for same meanings between the two letters,
+ the letter was not mentioned by the early church fathers before about the year 150
+ the letter seems to take aim at 2nd century gnosticism

Can anyone who has had a good look into this provide their opinion?

Thanks
The most plausable reason for the differences is the use of a scribe.
 

Sharp

Senior Member
May 5, 2009
2,565
19
38
#5
The most plausable reason for the differences is the use of a scribe.
I agree that is one plausible reason. But it does not explain why this letter apparently surfaced in the middle of the second century.
 
C

charisenexcelcis

Guest
#6
I agree that is one plausible reason. But it does not explain why this letter apparently surfaced in the middle of the second century.
The second century began in the year 101, so that it not as late as you think. Origen, one of the earliest of the patristic writers quotes it and Eusebius' problem with the Epistle did not stem from the question of authorship. All of the catholic epistles lack early manuscript evidence, but Origen is not so late a secondary source as to really be that much trouble.
 
C

Credo_ut_Intelligam

Guest
#7
No, I didn't forget about this. I've been looking into it here and there and then debating whether I should just point you to the resources I'm looking at or try and summarize the arguments and how much detail etc.

Guess I'll do a little bit of each.

B.B. Warfield has a good but long article rebutting the argument against Petrine authorship by Edwin Abbott. It deals primarily with two arguments unique to Abbott: Peter couldn't have been the author because if it's unintelligent style and because it borrows from the works of Josephus, which requires a date too late for it to have been authored by Peter. But Warfield also mentions some other sources and ways we can account for other objections to Petrine authorship in the first 1/3rd of the article.

For example, to the claim that the external evidence for the Epistle is insufficient, Warfield notes that 2 Peter is quoted by many before Clement of Alexandria and refers to an earlier article which argues this (Souther Presbyterian Review for January, 1882, pp 48.) and notes that “Clement wrote a Commentary on it as a part of a series of 'concise explanations of all the Canonical Scriptures.'”

The argument is made that 2 Peter is dependent on books published after Peter’s death. Abbott lists the Epistle of Clement as an example of this, but Warfield points out that Clement is also known to have borrowed from other sources (Hebrews) and so he may be borrowing from 2 Peter rather than vice versa (and we know of many other writers who borrowed from 2 Peter: Origen, Clement of Alexandria, Irenseus, Theophilus, Melito, Hermas, Justin, Barnabas).

Warfield argues that we can establish that Clement borrowed from 2 Peter simply by comparing the parallels (Clement 7.1 and 2 Peter 1.12; 3.1; Clement 7.5,6; 11.1 and 2 Peter 2.5-9 etc… you can consult the article for the full list).

Regarding stylistic differences between 1 Peter and 2 Peter I agree with what Charis has said. Warfield adds a good quote by Reuss that shows the slim evidence upon which the judgment is made: "the two Epistles are too short, have to do with wholly different circumstances, and especially present no direct contradictions; only if the Epistle is on other grounds proved to be ungenuine, can [these stylistic differences] also be brought into account.”

Other sources account for the difference by use of other source material: “…preformed material makes up at least one-third of 2 Peter and that other verses, although less easy to identify as such, may also represent traditional idiom (e.g. 2 Pet 1:2,5b-7; 3:18). That is, like other New Testament letters 2 Peter, although a carefully formed unity, is composed to a considerable extent from preformed materials that are somewhat reworked to for the purpose of the author” (The Making of the New Testament Documents 133).

The Anchor Yale Bible Dictionary lists the following as evidence against Petrine authorship: “…the conventional Greek virtues encouraged in 1:5–7; the notion of death as a ‘putting off of the bodily tent’ (1:13–14); identification of the realm of the dead or “hell” (RSV, NEB) as “tartarus” (2:4)…”

But it doesn’t take much work for us to see that this evidence isn’t very weighty. For example, I can think of lots of other places in the NT that speak of knowledge as a virtue or at least as something commendable, same with self-control, brother affection, etc. The Bible elsewhere uses Greek terms representing the after life (Gehenna for Hinnom) so it doesn’t seem that unusual as to deny Petrine authorship. Warfield says something relating to this issue in another context in the article I mentioned.

Claims like "there are theological differences between 1 and 2 Peter" may sound weighty on the surface, but when we look at exactly what these differences are supposed to be we can usually explain it by differences in situation and the own critic's bias (AYB mentions German Protestants reacting negatively to it's reliance upon tradition; we have an example of similar misguided bias in Luther's rejection of James).

The resources I'd suggest are Warfield's article which you can find here (link), I think you can find one or two of the other sources he mentions here, the Word Biblical Commentary (Bauckham believes the testament view, but also that it was obvious to the original audience), NIV App. Comm., and New American Comm. The New International Comm on NT is always an excellent place to go, but they haven't released the comm. on 2 Peter yet.
 
Last edited:

Sharp

Senior Member
May 5, 2009
2,565
19
38
#8
Thanks Credo, that's really helpful. :)