I just looked at four commentaries: Adam Clarke, Barnes Notes, Jamieson Faucet & Brown, and Charles Ellicott.
All four treat the genitive case Jesus' faith as if it were accusative Faith in Jesus. Angela, please tell us whether the genative case really works that way. I'm sure there are others on the forum qualified to answer; but I don't know who they are & I'm confident that you will answer correctly.
διὰ πίστεως Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ Rms 3:22a prepositional phrase
First. are you saying these commentators are somehow using
διὰ as "on account of" making it the actual accusative case? I would find that very hard to understand, as clearly since all the rest of the words in this prepositional phrase
πίστεως Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ, faith/belief/faithfulness are clearly in the genitive.
Or, are they debating the use of the objective and the subjective genitive? I have 5 commentaries open on Romans, and the majority seem to prefer the objective genitive, with all presenting the "alternative" as the subjective genitive. Which is to say, is Jesus the subject of the faith, in this phrase, or the object (perhaps this is where the confusing use of the accusative might come in)?
I also looked up quite a few translations, and most favour the use of the objective genitive, although the NET Bible, definitely translates it as the subjunctive. So, does theology dictate translation, or does translation dictate theology? I think the former, because this issue is simply not clear cut.
I looked through 5 commentaries, including the New International Greek Testament Commentary (Longenecker The Epistle to the Romans) and this is a very difficult issue. I also looked at various translations, most coming down on the traditional side of this phrase being the objective genitive, although the NET Bible, a translation I have been reading recently, translates as the subjective genitive, meaning that Jesus is the subject of the noun
πίστεως or faith/belief/faithfulness.
So, in brief, this is the discussion. Is the genitive subjective or objective?
Objective -
“through faith in Jesus Christ “ ESV
Subjective -
“God through the faithfulness of Jesus Christ “ NET
So, what are the arguments on both sides? And is there a third option? We talked about this issue a lot in Greek. Because sometimes it is obvious that it is the subjective or the objective genitive, and in other cases, both. But, in this case, not so much! And as one commentary says, perhaps it was not even an issue to the NT Greeks, but we moderns have made it into an issue. But, since this concerns the topic of this thread, let’s look closer!
“The righteousness of God comes through faith IN Jesus Christ.” Of course, the word “in” is not there in the Greek, although Alexandrinus (A 02) does add the
ἐν “en” – but it changes the word order, and the case, pointing to a deliberative change, to forestall any subjective genitive interpretation. However, one could use “of,” as it is a genitive, meaning “The righteousness of God through faith of Jesus Christ.” Or “
is by faith of Jesus Christ” like the KJV.
But, it could also be subjective, referring to the faith Jesus exercised, in other words, “Christ’s faith as opposed to man’s faith in him.” The word “faith” could then be taken in the sense of “faithfulness.” This could mean “God’s faithfulness in Christ Jesus” or “the faithfulness of Jesus Christ.” A reference to the “faithfulness of Christ” is supported by the fact that “all who believe” is redundant if we translate “faith in Jesus Christ” in the immediate section preceding.
So, should we see a reference to Christ’s faithfulness or to his faith, or to our faith, repeated twice in a row?
On the other hand,
πίστις, pistis, for Paul, almost always means “faith” and other strong contextual features must be present if any other meaning is to be adopted.
One commentator, (D. Moo in New International Commentary on the New Testament – The Epistle to the Romans), comments that “it is necessary to introduce some
dubious theology in order to speak of “the faith exercised by Jesus Christ.” Well, I guess that no one is saying that. It is either the “faithfulness of Christ,” or our “faith in/of Jesus Christ.”
It is also instructive that Longenecker notes the section Romans 3:24-26 has 15 “Prominent Exegetical Difficulties,” with #5 being this prepositional phrase. Although, it seems upon reading this, that he believes that to use the objective genitive is to set up a redundancy with the following phrase, and opts for the subjective genitive “through the faith/faithfulness of Jesus Christ, to all who believe.”
There is a third option, is cited by Turner in a footnote in Morris’s Pillar New Testament Commentary on Romans.
“God’s act of redemption is seen to be motivated not only by the willingness and faithfulness of Christ by offering himself on behalf of all those who believe in him, but is seen also in the response of men, “who put their faith in Christ.” Of the controversial phrase “the faith of Jesus Christ,” he says, it is “difficult to comprehend it within the limits of either the subjective or the objective genitive exclusively.” He suggests that it may share in the qualities of both. However, another part of the footnote rejects it is both, Kasemann, arguing that this view is correct only in “that for Paul the Giver always comes on scene with the gift.”
Finally, Morris notes, “We should bear in mind that Paul is not describing Christ, but outlining what Christ has done in bringing about salvation, so that we must understand, that at least in part of the meaning, the objective genitive. Faith in Jesus Christ is certainly in mind.” But there would be no place for the exercise of this faith were it not for the “faithfulness of Jesus Christ” and for “God’s faithfulness show in Jesus Christ.” The right standing God gives is connected with the faith of believers in Christ.
What is my personal opinion on this phrase? Well, I am certain that God has to give us the faith to believe first! It is a gift from God! It is totally from and of Christ. So, I would favour the subjective genitive, in which I can rely on Christ’s faithfulness, to hold on to me for the rest of my life. As Paul goes on to say in Romans 5:1, “We are justified through faith.” If that faith comes from God, then is not Jesus Christ the subject first and foremost of any discussion of justification and faith? We do not save ourselves, through “our” faith. That stinks too much of having faith in our own faith. I would far rather err on the subjective side, avoid the redundancy, and declare that:
“the righteousness of God through the faithfulness of Jesus Christ for all who believe.” Romans 3:22a NET
Just saying....
