Ascension

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Nov 12, 2015
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#1
Did Jesus ascend to heaven sooner than I thought?

He tells a woman not to touch Him because He has not ascended yet but then later lets them touch Him.

I always assumed He ascended when they saw Him go but I think He may have ascended prior to that...and then come back.
 
Nov 12, 2015
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#2
Of course this will probably create a problem with the rapture debate...that He has already ascended and come again once in secret, only to His followers but not to every eye...:rolleyes:
 

FlSnookman7

Senior Member
Jun 27, 2015
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#3
Did Jesus ascend to heaven sooner than I thought?

He tells a woman not to touch Him because He has not ascended yet but then later lets them touch Him.

I always assumed He ascended when they saw Him go but I think He may have ascended prior to that...and then come back.
I believe they are 2 different times...

John 20:17 Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.
That was outside the tomb

Acts 1:9-11 [FONT=&quot]9 Now when He had spoken these things, while they watched, He was taken up, and a cloud received Him out of their sight. [/FONT][FONT=&quot][/FONT][FONT=&quot]10 And while they looked steadfastly toward heaven as He went up, behold, two men stood by them in white apparel, [/FONT][FONT=&quot][/FONT][FONT=&quot]11 who also said, “Men of Galilee, why do you stand gazing up into heaven? This same Jesus, who was taken up from you into heaven, will so come in like manner as you saw Him go into heaven.”

The second one is after He returned and gave the Holy Spirit and appeared to many witnesses, I think it was 40 days after He rose but I must check that. Hope this helps.
[/FONT]
 
Nov 12, 2015
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#4
Yes, thank you. I guess because it wasn't overtly and blatantly stated, I never took note of it that He had to have ascended and come back. Sometimes you must hit me over the head before I see something. :)
 
Nov 12, 2015
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#5
And He also said the Holy Spirit would not come unless He went to the Father. :)
 
Dec 12, 2013
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#6
I think his words to the woman were followed by him ascending into heaven and offering his blood upon the mercy seat just like the picture of the high priest in the tabernacle once a year....if she would have touched him it would have tainted his offering for sin.....

The even in Acts when the disciples watched him ascend into the clouds was an entirely different 2nd event in my view....
 

MarcR

Senior Member
Feb 12, 2015
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#7
Did Jesus ascend to heaven sooner than I thought?

He tells a woman not to touch Him because He has not ascended yet but then later lets them touch Him.

I always assumed He ascended when they saw Him go but I think He may have ascended prior to that...and then come back.
You have had 2 good answers in the posts below; but I want to point out something they did not address.

The word haptoy translated ' touch ' really means cling; so Jesus actually said "stop clinging to me".

below with reference to your post above with reference to mine.
 
Nov 12, 2015
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#8
You have had 2 good answers in the posts below; but I want to point out something they did not address.

The word haptoy translated ' touch ' really means cling; so Jesus actually said "stop clinging to me".

below with reference to your post above with reference to mine.
I think that's debatable.

Haptomai: To attach oneself to, to touch. This is what my concordance says. It gives no indication of clinging, to me.
I guess it could be inferred, but it seems to me to mean touch more than it means cling to...
 
Nov 12, 2015
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#9
But in the way you define it, she did in fact touch Him and in the way I define it, she did not touch Him.

I guess my next thought is: if we go with your definition, why was Him not having yet gone to the Father of importance?

Intriguing stuff....:)
 

MarcR

Senior Member
Feb 12, 2015
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#10
I think that's debatable.

Haptomai: To attach oneself to, to touch. This is what my concordance says. It gives no indication of clinging, to me.
I guess it could be inferred, but it seems to me to mean touch more than it means cling to...

NT:680

2. Middle (present
<START GREEK>a/(ptomai
<END GREEK>); imperfect
<START GREEK>h(ptomhn
<END GREEK> (Mk 6:56 R G Tr marginal reading); 1 aorist
<START GREEK>h(ya/mhn
<END GREEK>; in the Sept. generally for <START HEBREW> ug^n*
<END HEBREW>, <START HEBREW> u^yG!h!
<END HEBREW>; properly, to fasten oneself to, adhere to, cling to
(from Thayer's Greek Lexicon, PC Study Bible formatted Electronic Database. Copyright © 2006 by Biblesoft, Inc. All rights reserved.)
Sorry the greek text in the software is incompatible with CC.
 
Nov 12, 2015
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#11
NT:680

2. Middle (present
<START GREEK>a/(ptomai
<END GREEK>); imperfect
<START GREEK>h(ptomhn
<END GREEK> (Mk 6:56 R G Tr marginal reading); 1 aorist
<START GREEK>h(ya/mhn
<END GREEK>; in the Sept. generally for <START HEBREW> ug^n*
<END HEBREW>, <START HEBREW> u^yG!h!
<END HEBREW>; properly, to fasten oneself to, adhere to, cling to
(from Thayer's Greek Lexicon, PC Study Bible formatted Electronic Database. Copyright © 2006 by Biblesoft, Inc. All rights reserved.)
Sorry the greek text in the software is incompatible with CC.
Apparently, Strongs concordance does not agree with this digital one...
 
Nov 12, 2015
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#12
Do you think Strongs Concordance is bad...? It's what I've always used. It's quite heavy, so sometimes I don't look something up unless I'm very curious. haha!
 
Nov 12, 2015
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#13
You know what? I think I'll just keep on with it. It hasn't harmed me yet I don't think.

There have only been a few times I've used it in depth, like to look up the words in the first chapter of Genesis. And it actually helped my understanding (though some would say it harmed me, lol!)

I'm not going to study Greek, at least I have no plans to as of now, so I'll keep to Strongs. It helps me to look up the root words too. It gives me a rounder understanding. :)
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
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#14
Of course this will probably create a problem with the rapture debate...that He has already ascended and come again once in secret, only to His followers but not to every eye...:rolleyes:
No. Christ's ascension has no bearing on the Rapture other than the fact that He is now in Heaven. Christ did ascend to the Father on the day that He was resurrected, but after that He made several appearances to His disciples and apostles during the forty day following His resurrection. After that He finally ascended (was received up into Heaven) to sit at the right hand of God.

So then after the Lord had spoken unto them, he was received up into heaven, and sat on the right hand of God. (Mk 16:19).
 

MarcR

Senior Member
Feb 12, 2015
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#15
Do you think Strongs Concordance is bad...? It's what I've always used. It's quite heavy, so sometimes I don't look something up unless I'm very curious. haha!
Strong's is an excellent concordance. It is not and does not try to be a lexicon.

A lexicon is like a dictionary except it gives definitions of 1 language in another language.

Thayer's is a Greek/English lexicon.

It not only gives basic definitions; it shows how a word is used in each grammatical construction.
 

beta

Senior Member
Aug 8, 2016
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#16
I think that's debatable.

Haptomai: To attach oneself to, to touch. This is what my concordance says. It gives no indication of clinging, to me.
I guess it could be inferred, but it seems to me to mean touch more than it means cling to...
'Touch and 'Cling are not the same words nor have the same meaning.
 

graceNpeace

Senior Member
Aug 12, 2016
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#17
a
'Touch and 'Cling are not the same words nor have the some meaning.
You are aware that you are arguing with someone very familiar with Hebrew (and Aramaic)...
 
H

heartofdavid

Guest
#18
You really can not cling to someone with out touching them.

Did Jesus somehow overlook that?

IMO,He must have ascended immediately,but it is written some touched him a few minutes later.

One if those mysteries I suppose
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
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#19
Do you think Strongs Concordance is bad...? It's what I've always used. It's quite heavy, so sometimes I don't look something up unless I'm very curious. haha!
Strong's Exhaustive Concordance has been the standard concordance for over one hundred years. If you supplement it with Thayer's Greek Lexicon you do get a fuller understanding. But don't let anyone put down Strong's. It is right there in Bible Hub, along with Thayer's.
 
Mar 23, 2016
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#20
According to John 20:1, Mary approached Jesus on the first day of the week. This is the first day (Sunday) after Passover and, according to Lev 23:9-14, the feast of firstfruits takes place on the day after the Sabbath following Passover.

The high priest would wave the sheaf of the firstfruits before the Lord. In waving the sheaf, it was a symbolic gesture of dedicating the harvest to the Lord.

Leviticus 23:14 And ye shall eat neither bread, nor parched corn, nor green ears, until the selfsame day that ye have brought an offering unto your God

The children of Israel could not partake of the harvest until after the high priest completed the wave of the firstfruits offering.


When Mary met Jesus, He was on His way to fulfill the offering of the firstfruits to His Father. Just as no one could partake of the grain until the wave offering had been completed, no one could partake in the joy of our resurrected Lord and Savior until He had appeared before His Father.


The waving of the sheaf also marked the start of counting the seven Sabbaths to Pentecost (Lev 23:15-22).

On the Day of Pentecost in the year our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ was resurrected from the grave, we have the first outpouring of Holy Spirit – Acts 2:1-4.

What a harvest hast been reaped from that offering of the firstfruits by our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ to our day and time. In fulfilling the feast of firstfruits, Jesus dedicated the harvest (all born again believers) to His Father.


(Don't know if this addresses the point in the OP, but it's what came to my mind as I read through the thread.)