salvation of gentiles in the OT

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notmyown

Senior Member
May 26, 2016
4,646
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#23
Well Asia is quite a ways from Israel and the Levant. Marc's answer just about sums it up.

oh, dear! thank you for pointing that out. :eek:
i wrote in haste, and was thinking more of the title of the thread than the original post. i don't even have TL;DR as an excuse. lol

in future i will try to emulate my brother Marc and read more carefully. apologies, y'all!
 
Dec 28, 2016
9,171
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#24
was there any way for someone in asia to be saved in the OT times? were any of them saved? is there any scripture on this u see?
In answer:

There is no scripture on this except possibly this one:

Ro 1:16-22
16 For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek.
17 For therein is the righteousness of God revealed from faith to faith: as it is written, The just shall live by faith.
18 For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who hold the truth in unrighteousness;
19 Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them.
20 For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:
21 Because that, when they knew God, they glorified him not as God, neither were thankful; but became vain in their imaginations, and their foolish heart was darkened.
22 Professing themselves to be wise, they became fools,
KJV

Without any other Scriptural backing, I believe that God has revealed Himself to all who truly seek Him in all times and places.

I base this belief on what God has revealed about His character.
Except the text in Romans 1 isn't teaching any of that which I made bold.

Why people continue to go there when it is absolutely not in the text is beyond me. What has been revealed to men is there is a God and we are under wrath outside of Christ and that judgment upon society is just due and the only means of salvation is via Christ through the Gospel.

Sorry, there isn't any Scriptural backing, let alone any other Scriptural backing to your presumption. There is no salvation via Romans 1 as is being suggested. That is purely mystical and wishful thinking.

The intent of Romans 1 isn't that people mystically get saved, are given "more light" if they "receive light", as many make this out to be from the text. (Not saying MarcR is doing that exactly, but his answer to muzungu's question if anyone in Asia were saved or in OT was to provide Romans 1 as if that says "yes, they can be saved in this fashion" because Giod revealed Himself to all that truly seek Him.)

Read the actual text provided! There is nothing there, not one thing to uphold this mysticism, nothing but condemnation.

The intent of Romans 1 is that man is lost and without excuse. Paul goes on in Romans to further this truth that salvation is only through the Gospel and Christ alone, not through a misapplication and misappropriation of Romans 1 as if it is teaching mystical salvation through revelation in nature &c. If we want to go there it is nothing but Eastern Mysticism mingled with the Gospel.

Paul's intentions in the first several chapters of Romans is to show that the world is lost and under God's condemnation, the answer to this in the following chapters is there is salvation only via Christ and the Gospel, not mysticism, light via natural revelation and Romans 1.

It's Christ and it's via the Gospel and no other means.
 
Dec 28, 2016
5,455
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#25
In answer:



Except the text in Romans 1 isn't teaching any of that which I made bold.

Why people continue to go there when it is absolutely not in the text is beyond me. What has been revealed to men is there is a God and we are under wrath outside of Christ and that judgment upon society is just due and the only means of salvation is via Christ through the Gospel.

Sorry, there isn't any Scriptural backing, let alone any other Scriptural backing to your presumption. There is no salvation via Romans 1 as is being suggested. That is purely mystical and wishful thinking.

The intent of Romans 1 isn't that people mystically get saved, are given "more light" if they "receive light", as many make this out to be from the text. (Not saying MarcR is doing that exactly, but his answer to muzungu's question if anyone in Asia were saved or in OT was to provide Romans 1 as if that says "yes, they can be saved in this fashion" because Giod revealed Himself to all that truly seek Him.)

Read the actual text provided! There is nothing there, not one thing to uphold this mysticism, nothing but condemnation.

The intent of Romans 1 is that man is lost and without excuse. Paul goes on in Romans to further this truth that salvation is only through the Gospel and Christ alone, not through a misapplication and misappropriation of Romans 1 as if it is teaching mystical salvation through revelation in nature &c. If we want to go there it is nothing but Eastern Mysticism mingled with the Gospel.

Paul's intentions in the first several chapters of Romans is to show that the world is lost and under God's condemnation, the answer to this in the following chapters is there is salvation only via Christ and the Gospel, not mysticism, light via natural revelation and Romans 1.

It's Christ and it's via the Gospel and no other means.
The tailgate has been dropped now...."Turn loose the hounds!!"

Wonderful, and biblically sound post my Brother.
 
J

Joshua_6

Guest
#26
Yes. It was by circumcision. Many that came out in the Exodus were Egyptians. And read the rape of Dinah, Gen. 34. (Not Isreal's finest moment). There were many non-Jews that followed G-d in the OT but they had to be circumcised to follow the One True G-d. That is what the big deal was about in the NT.
So what about Rahab and Ruth? I'm sure you'll agree it would have been quite difficult for these two Old Testament saints to have undergone circumcision, but Rahab is mentioned in the faith chapter in Hebrews, and Ruth is an ancestor of David and Jesus.
 

prove-all

Senior Member
May 16, 2014
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#27
28 And to man He said, 'Behold, the fear of the Lord, that is wisdom,
and to depart from evil is understanding' (Job 28:28).




What is interesting about Job 28:28 is that Job said that this is what
God said to man ,and there is no record of this being said in Genesis
 
Dec 28, 2016
5,455
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#28
was there any way for someone in asia to be saved in the OT times? were any of them saved? is there any scripture on this u see?
Then what advantage has the Jew? Or what is the benefit of circumcision? Great in every respect. First of all, that they were entrusted with the oracles of God.[Romans 3:1,2]

The Jews were the only ones in OT that had the word(oracles) of God. The other nations did not. Other nations were enemies of the Jews. In the word(oracles) of God, it told them what they had to do, what animals to bring to the sacrifice, what foods to eat and not eat, how to treat others, &c. The other nations had no sacrificial system that atoned for their sins. The OT sacrificial system only stayed their sins for a year and then another sacrifice was needed. The other nations did not have this to atone for their sins.

So, those who died outside of Israel in OT days, died lost. Those who became proselyte Jews were saved, yet, there was only so far they could go into the court. When the Christ died, the veil of the temple tore from top to bottom, so that now all who believe have access into the holiest of holies, and this is the Christ.