Here is a question I have asked before, in here too, I thinks....lol
What is Paul saying, or more like meaning, when he uses the term "Fulness of the gentiles?" As the Gospel that was given to the Jews, is now, given unto the gentiles, "until the fulness thereof", or, something along those lines, then given again, to the Jews?
I have an idea, what "I" thinks it could mean, but, is really just an educated "guess."
What is Paul saying, or more like meaning, when he uses the term "Fulness of the gentiles?" As the Gospel that was given to the Jews, is now, given unto the gentiles, "until the fulness thereof", or, something along those lines, then given again, to the Jews?
I have an idea, what "I" thinks it could mean, but, is really just an educated "guess."
The Jews being formed from two gentile nations (Hittites and Amorites )they in respect to the outward were temporal used as a sign in shadows up until the time of reformation. Their temporal status as special people used in parables ended .They revert back to the Gentiles, the generation of Adam, natural man which Christ called an evil generation. .
This is any person that has not the Spirit of Christ the new generation of Christ. They do not belong to God as His eternal people .
The time of the gentiles ending is the time when God is no longer bringing faith as his work to create new creatures. It will end on the last day when the new heavens and earth appear. We continue to walk by faith having not received the promise of our new incorruptible bodies which will be nether male nor female, Jew nor Gentile.
Heb 11:39 And these all, having obtained a good report through faith (Christ's) , received not the promise: