Why was a sinless Jesus Baptized?

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FlyingDove

FlyingDove

Senior Member
#1
Dec 27, 2017
1,259
431
83
#1
What really happened at Jesus Baptism?

John the Baptist let it be known clearly that Jesus was the Savior of mankind. God sent John the Baptist, a descendant of Aaron (1 Chr 24:10, Luke 1:5) & the last High Priest of the Old Testament (Matt 11:11-13)

John the Baptist was God's sent/chosen prophet & appointed by God (like Aaron) High Priest. John's father was a priest, descended from Aaron on both his mothers and fathers blood line. A pure blooded priest, a cohanim to he house of Aaron.

The cohanim, identified the sacrifice acceptable and presented the lambs for sacrifice.

God specified that the sacrifice's of the Day of Atonement could only be offered by Aaron & the succeeding High Priests among his descendants. Two sacrifices were offered, a lot was drawn. One was sacrificed to the Lord. The other, Aaron was to lay his hands on the head of the Azazel Scapegoat. He would confess all the peoples sins. And the Azazel Scapegoat was sent into the wilderness. Carrying away all the people sins with it. (Lev 16:8-22)

John the Baptist confessed/announced: Behold the Lamd of God, that TAKES AWAY THE SINS OF THE WORLD. John then layed his hands on Jesus and Baptized him?

Where did Jesus go immediately after His baptism? Answer: The wilderness (Azazel Scapegoat) Again, Only the High Priest could inact this sin transfer process. (see scapegoat Lev 16:10)

Lev 16:21 And Aaron shall lay both his hands upon the head of the live goat, and confess over him all the iniquities of the children of Israel, and all their transgressions in all their sins, putting them upon the head of the goat, and shall send him away by the hand of a fit man into the wilderness:(see Lev 16:8,9,10,21 & 22 on transfer process)
Jesus Baptism Part 2:

Jesus becomes, Sin Offering/Azazel Scapegoat & a Rabbi by authority or ordination (Semikhah).

John procalims Christ as the Lamb of God. When Jesus comes up: A 2nd voice coming from Heaven comfirms Jesus & a FlyingDove = HOLY SPIRIT, falls & Anoints him A Great High Priest after the order of Melchezidek.

Matt 3:17. With the laying on of hands by John (Sin Transfer), the water putification Baptism =( Full MIKVAH) & the 2 voice comfirms Jesus High Priest transfer. Jesus is: Sin Offering/Azazel Scapegoat & a Rabbi by authority or ordination (Semikhah).

Alot happened at Jesus baptism. None of which had anything to do with the forgivness of Jesus sins. Jesus was Sinless: 1 Pet 2:22, 2 Cor 5:21, Heb 4:15, 1 Jn 3:5 1 Pet 1:19

When John baptized Jesus, he not only transferred the old covenant Priesthood to the New covenants "Great" High Priest. John also passed (transfered) all the sins of humankind onto Him, the Son of God. The Scapegoat who was chosen to save sinners. Only God's chosen High Priest had the power of this sin transfer.
 
D

dalconn

Guest
#2
#2
[SUP]Matthew 3:13-15
13 [/SUP]Then Jesus *arrived from Galilee at the Jordan coming to John, to be baptized by him.​
[SUP]14 [/SUP]But John tried to prevent Him, saying, “I have need to be baptized by You, and do You come to me?” [SUP]15 [/SUP]But Jesus answering said to him, “Permit it at this time; for in this way it is fitting for us to fulfill all righteousness.” Then he *permitted Him.​
 
Waggles

Waggles

Senior Member
#3
Sep 21, 2017
3,338
1,261
113
South
adelaiderevival.com
#3
What really happened at Jesus Baptism?​

Apart from your excellent thesis we were also given a template
for all other disciples to follow -
baptism by full immersion - death, burial, resurrection, new life
confessing our faith > washing away our sins.
 
Nehemiah6

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
#4
Jul 18, 2017
24,347
12,872
113
#4
FlyingDove said:
The Scapegoat who was chosen to save sinners. Only God's chosen High Priest had the power of this sin transfer.
Click to expand...
However, John the Baptist was not the High Priest at that time, neither is he presented as a priest or High Priest in Scripture -- always as a prophet. So your theory does not actually mesh with what we find in the Gospels. Also it was only at the crucifixion that the Lamb of God took away the sin of the world by the offering up of Himself. He Himself was both the High Priest and the Sacrifice.
 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
#5
#5
John gave us the answer, to review himself it Isreal. Nothing more nothing less.

John 1:31
I did not know Him; but that He should be revealed to Israel, therefore I came baptizing with water
 
H

heartofdavid

Guest
#6
#6
FlyingDove said:
What really happened at Jesus Baptism?

John the Baptist let it be known clearly that Jesus was the Savior of mankind. God sent John the Baptist, a descendant of Aaron (1 Chr 24:10, Luke 1:5) & the last High Priest of the Old Testament (Matt 11:11-13)

John the Baptist was God's sent/chosen prophet & appointed by God (like Aaron) High Priest. John's father was a priest, descended from Aaron on both his mothers and fathers blood line. A pure blooded priest, a cohanim to he house of Aaron.

The cohanim, identified the sacrifice acceptable and presented the lambs for sacrifice.

God specified that the sacrifice's of the Day of Atonement could only be offered by Aaron & the succeeding High Priests among his descendants. Two sacrifices were offered, a lot was drawn. One was sacrificed to the Lord. The other, Aaron was to lay his hands on the head of the Azazel Scapegoat. He would confess all the peoples sins. And the Azazel Scapegoat was sent into the wilderness. Carrying away all the people sins with it. (Lev 16:8-22)

John the Baptist confessed/announced: Behold the Lamd of God, that TAKES AWAY THE SINS OF THE WORLD. John then layed his hands on Jesus and Baptized him?

Where did Jesus go immediately after His baptism? Answer: The wilderness (Azazel Scapegoat) Again, Only the High Priest could inact this sin transfer process. (see scapegoat Lev 16:10)

Lev 16:21 And Aaron shall lay both his hands upon the head of the live goat, and confess over him all the iniquities of the children of Israel, and all their transgressions in all their sins, putting them upon the head of the goat, and shall send him away by the hand of a fit man into the wilderness:(see Lev 16:8,9,10,21 & 22 on transfer process)
Jesus Baptism Part 2:

Jesus becomes, Sin Offering/Azazel Scapegoat & a Rabbi by authority or ordination (Semikhah).

John procalims Christ as the Lamb of God. When Jesus comes up: A 2nd voice coming from Heaven comfirms Jesus & a FlyingDove = HOLY SPIRIT, falls & Anoints him A Great High Priest after the order of Melchezidek.

Matt 3:17. With the laying on of hands by John (Sin Transfer), the water putification Baptism =( Full MIKVAH) & the 2 voice comfirms Jesus High Priest transfer. Jesus is: Sin Offering/Azazel Scapegoat & a Rabbi by authority or ordination (Semikhah).

Alot happened at Jesus baptism. None of which had anything to do with the forgivness of Jesus sins. Jesus was Sinless: 1 Pet 2:22, 2 Cor 5:21, Heb 4:15, 1 Jn 3:5 1 Pet 1:19

When John baptized Jesus, he not only transferred the old covenant Priesthood to the New covenants "Great" High Priest. John also passed (transfered) all the sins of humankind onto Him, the Son of God. The Scapegoat who was chosen to save sinners. Only God's chosen High Priest had the power of this sin transfer.
Click to expand...
Nicely done.
In short,yes,the priesthood transferred at baptism.
 
H

heartofdavid

Guest
#7
#7
Nehemiah6 said:
However, John the Baptist was not the High Priest at that time, neither is he presented as a priest or High Priest in Scripture -- always as a prophet. So your theory does not actually mesh with what we find in the Gospels. Also it was only at the crucifixion that the Lamb of God took away the sin of the world by the offering up of Himself. He Himself was both the High Priest and the Sacrifice.
Click to expand...
Yes he was by birth.

Chiapas was a roman appointee
 
H

heartofdavid

Guest
#8
#8
Plus according to the mosaic law the high priest was forbidden from the duty in the HOH if he tore his Robe.
Ciaphus tore his robe the night before the passover sacrifice.

Jesus robe ,seamless according to law,was intact.
The hidden revelations of the priesthood
 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
#9
#9
heartofdavid said:
Nicely done.
In short,yes,the priesthood transferred at baptism.
Click to expand...

The priesthood transferred on the cross. When the levitical priesthood was fulfilled
 
H

heartofdavid

Guest
#10
#10
IOW, even the possibility of caiaphus being legitimate was removed at the day Jesus acted as the New priesthood through the lineage of David (Judah) .

The lineage of John the Baptist was indeed ordained as a Levite to transfer the priesthood to Judah
 
H

heartofdavid

Guest
#12
#12
Remember, Jesus ALREADY had the power to forgive sin.

On the day Jesus was crucified, he acted as the priest,not the priest " to soon be"
 
Nehemiah6

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
#13
Jul 18, 2017
24,347
12,872
113
#13
heartofdavid said:
Yes he was by birth.
Click to expand...
His father Zachariah was NOT the High Priest, but a priest "of the course of Abia", and God did not appoint John as a priest or High Priest, but as a prophet, and the forerunner of Messiah. Moses was from the tribe of Levi, but appointed as a prophet also.

And he shall go before him in the spirit and power of Elias [Elijah], to turn the hearts of the fathers to the children, and the disobedient to the wisdom of the just; to make ready a people prepared for the Lord (Lk 1:17).

We should not allow our fantasies to override Scripture.
 
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H

heartofdavid

Guest
#14
#14
eternally-gratefull said:
The priesthood transferred on the cross. When the levitical priesthood was fulfilled
Click to expand...
There was no "levitical priesthood fulfilled" at the cross. The levitical priesthood was disenfranchised. Torn down Before passover duties.

IOW, You had one illegitimate priestood act in futility and one TRUE,NEW,BETTER,Priesthood ,Jesus, officiating his own sacrifice.

The levitical ended at Jesus baptism.
All you saw after that was an empty shell of ordinances.
 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
#16
#16
heartofdavid said:
IOW, even the possibility of caiaphus being legitimate was removed at the day Jesus acted as the New priesthood through the lineage of David (Judah) .

The lineage of John the Baptist was indeed ordained as a Levite to transfer the priesthood to Judah
Click to expand...

Where do people come up with this stuff?
 
Nehemiah6

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
#17
Jul 18, 2017
24,347
12,872
113
#17
heartofdavid said:
The lineage of John the Baptist was indeed ordained as a Levite to transfer the priesthood to Judah
Click to expand...
More fantasy. No human being could "transfer" the priesthood from one tribe to another. Indeed, we are not even told as to which tribe Melchizedek belonged, but we are told in no uncertain terms that GOD HIMSELF made Jesus High Priest after the order of Melchizedek, to confirm that the Aaronic priesthood within the Old Covenant ended at the Cross.
 
H

heartofdavid

Guest
#19
#19
Nehemiah6 said:
His father Zachariah was NOT the High Priest, but a priest "of the course of Abia", and God did not appoint John as a priest or High Priest, but as a prophet, and the forerunner of Messiah. Moses was from the tribe of Levi, but appointed as a prophet also.

And he shall go before him in the spirit and power of Elias [Elijah], to turn the hearts of the fathers to the children, and the disobedient to the wisdom of the just; to make ready a people prepared for the Lord (Lk 1:17).

We should not allow our fantasies to override Scripture.
Click to expand...
You dont know what you are talking about.

The romans had taken over .

The priests began entry through baptism. That is how it was transferred.

I never said Zecharias was the High Priest
 
stonesoffire

stonesoffire

Poetic Member
#20
Nov 24, 2013
10,665
1,829
113
#20
dalconn said:
[SUP]Matthew 3:13-15
13 [/SUP]Then Jesus *arrived from Galilee at the Jordan coming to John, to be baptized by him.​
[SUP]14 [/SUP]But John tried to prevent Him, saying, “I have need to be baptized by You, and do You come to me?”[SUP]15 [/SUP]But Jesus answering said to him, “Permit it at this time; for in this way it is fitting for us to fulfill all righteousness.” Then he *permitted Him.​
Click to expand...
Ive always wondered what this means. Not that I disagree with any other post here, I don't. All great points with truth imo. But, is this part of fulfilling law?
 
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