Epistle of James

[p_rehbein]

A question about his Epistle, and why he words his introduction the way he does.

James 1:1) James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ, to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad, greeting.

What I am wondering about is the statement "to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad."

Isn't it odd that he would say "twelve tribes?" How is it possible that all twelve tribes had been "scattered abroad" by 49AD which is when it is believed he wrote his Epistle?

I "searched" this, and found the following:

The Epistle of James was written to Jewish Christians of the first century A.D. living in gentile communities outside Palestine, in an effort to expose hypocritical practices and to teach right Christian behavior.

Epistle of James - Theopedia.com

But this does not explain the "twelve tribes" statement, does it?

I know there are some here who research the History of Scripture, and I would appreciate some insight into this. I just do not see why he would state "to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad."

 

[John146]

A question about his Epistle, and why he words his introduction the way he does.

James 1:1) James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ, to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad, greeting.

What I am wondering about is the statement "to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad."

Isn't it odd that he would say "twelve tribes?" How is it possible that all twelve tribes had been "scattered abroad" by 49AD which is when it is believed he wrote his Epistle?

I "searched" this, and found the following:

The Epistle of James was written to Jewish Christians of the first century A.D. living in gentile communities outside Palestine, in an effort to expose hypocritical practices and to teach right Christian behavior.

Epistle of James - Theopedia.com

But this does not explain the "twelve tribes" statement, does it?

I know there are some here who research the History of Scripture, and I would appreciate some insight into this. I just do not see why he would state "to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad."

Don't search it out on websites, but within the word of God. The term "twelve tribes" always means just that, the nation of Israel as a whole and never, never a called out group (especially Christians) of that nation. James is addressing the entire nation of Israel, the twelve tribes. The book of James is doctrinally set forth for the coming tribulation when the nation of Israel will be scattered abroad and face fierce persecution. This is why it is set forth after the epistles of Paul to the body of believers even though it was written before Paul wrote his epistles.

To make James a Christian epistle would to contradict every other usage of that term "twelve tribes" throughout Scripture and I'm not willing to do that. Besides, in the body of Christ there is no Jew or Gentile.

 

[trofimus]

A question about his Epistle, and why he words his introduction the way he does.

James 1:1) James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ, to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad, greeting.

What I am wondering about is the statement "to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad."

Isn't it odd that he would say "twelve tribes?" How is it possible that all twelve tribes had been "scattered abroad" by 49AD which is when it is believed he wrote his Epistle?

I "searched" this, and found the following:

[FONT=&]The Epistle of [/FONT]James[FONT=&] was written to Jewish Christians of the first century A.D. living in gentile communities outside Palestine, in an effort to expose hypocritical practices and to teach right Christian behavior.

[/FONT]Epistle of James - Theopedia.com[FONT=&]

[/FONT]But this does not explain the "twelve tribes" statement, does it?

I know there are some here who research the History of Scripture, and I would appreciate some insight into this. I just do not see why he would state "to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad."

How did you come to the conclusion, that the epistle was written in 49AD?

 

[p_rehbein]

It was stated on the Link Provided that it is believed to have been written in 49AD......

I'm sure there are differing opinions, just as there are differing opinions on WHO this James was......

 

[p_rehbein]

[FONT=&quot]The epistle of James is generally attributed to the brother of [/FONT]Jesus [FONT=&quot]however there is some question concerning the authenticity of this claim. James is thought to have been written in 49 A.D. prior to the Jerusalem council held in 50 A.d.[/FONT]

 

[trofimus]

There are four "commonly espoused" views concerning authorship and dating of the Epistle of James:

a) the letter was written by James before the Pauline Epistles,
b) the letter was written by James after the Pauline Epistles,
c) the letter is pseudonymous,
d) the letter comprises material originally from James but reworked by a later editor.

The writer refers to himself only as "James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ.


Many scholars consider the epistle to be written in the late 1st or early 2nd centuries:

The author introduces himself merely as "a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ" without invoking any special family relationship to Jesus.
The cultured Greek language of the Epistle, it is contended, could not have been written by a Jerusalem Jew. Some scholars argue for a primitive version of the letter composed by James and then later polished by another writer.
The epistle was only gradually accepted into the canon of the New Testament.
Some see parallels between James and 1 Peter, 1 Clement, and the Shepherd of Hermas and take this to reflect the socio-economic situation Christians were dealing with in the late 1st or early 2nd century. It thus could have been written anywhere in the Empire that Christians spoke Greek. There are some scholars who argued for Syria.


https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Epistle_of_James

So, I would say that we do not know who is the author and when it was written

 

[FlyingDove]

The Jewish people were scattered and sent into exile several different times. Assyrians in 700's BC, Babylonian captivity 500's BC are a couple example's.

 

[trofimus]

I would say that its just an expression, meaning Christians all over the Roman empire, scattered untill Christ will come again.

 

[eternally-gratefull]

The twelve tribes were scattered for punishment as promised in lev 26. They at the time of Jesus, were scattered all over the world. I think they world termed them all jews. But most likely a jewish person would still have classified them as being 12 tribes.

Of course as with all books. It is adressed to Isreal. But has application for us all.

 

[dcontroversal]

The twelve tribes were scattered for punishment as promised in lev 26. They at the time of Jesus, were scattered all over the world. I think they world termed them all jews. But most likely a jewish person would still have classified them as being 12 tribes.

Of course as with all books. It is adressed to Isreal. But has application for us all.

I would also add that James addresses them as "My Brethern".......so that leaves us two possibilities that must be pondered...

a. He is just addressing the Jewish people who have been scattered abroad in the sense of national kinship
b. He is actually addressing Hebrew Christians that have been scattered abroad

Also...if written by the half brother of JESUS, we must take into account that James was martyred in 62 A.D.........

The big questions are......

What event caused them to be scattered
Is he addressing believers or just Israeli Kinsmen
When was the book actually written
Which James wrote the book

The above would give an accurate time line and help apply the book to who it was intended.........

 

[John146]

The twelve tribes were scattered for punishment as promised in lev 26. They at the time of Jesus, were scattered all over the world. I think they world termed them all jews. But most likely a jewish person would still have classified them as being 12 tribes.

Of course as with all books. It is adressed to Isreal. But has application for us all.

All the books addressed to Israel? Really? Paul wrote to the body of Christ not Israel. Paul wished his brethren according to the flesh, the nation of Israel would be saved.

 

[John146]

What I am wondering about is the statement "to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad."

Isn't it odd that he would say "twelve tribes?" How is it possible that all twelve tribes had been "scattered abroad" by 49AD which is when it is believed he wrote his Epistle?

I "searched" this, and found the following:

The Epistle of James was written to Jewish Christians of the first century A.D. living in gentile communities outside Palestine, in an effort to expose hypocritical practices and to teach right Christian behavior.

Epistle of James - Theopedia.com

But this does not explain the "twelve tribes" statement, does it?

James 1:21 Wherefore lay apart all filthiness and superfluity of naughtiness, and receive with meekness the engrafted word, which is able to save your souls.

There were obviously those in James' intended audience that had not received the word of God and needed their souls saved.

 

[Nehemiah6]

To make James a Christian epistle would to contradict every other usage of that term "twelve tribes" throughout Scripture and I'm not willing to do that. Besides, in the body of Christ there is no Jew or Gentile.

Since James calls himself a servant of the Lord Jesus Christ, it should be crystal clear that this is A CHRISTIAN EPISTLE. At the time of his writing there were many Hebrew Christians scattered throughout the Roman empire. Those from the ten "lost" tribes were not visible to men, but certainly visible to God. Since God is the ultimate Author of this epistle, all the redeemed of Israel are being addressed here. But that does not exclude Gentile Christians in the least. Just as the epistle to the Hebrews is primarily for Hebrew Christians and secondarily for all Christians, the epistles of James and Peter are also designed in this way. The teachings are for all Christians.

 

[Locutus]

A question about his Epistle, and why he words his introduction the way he does.

James 1:1) James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ, to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad, greeting.

What I am wondering about is the statement "to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad."

Isn't it odd that he would say "twelve tribes?" How is it possible that all twelve tribes had been "scattered abroad" by 49AD which is when it is believed he wrote his Epistle?

James is writing to the tribes (not just the Jews) that were scattered much earlier that were to be gathered together under Christ:

John 11:52 And not for that nation only, but that also he should gather together in one the children of God that were scattered abroad.

Isa 11:10 In that day the Root of Jesse will stand as a banner for the peoples; the nations will rally to him, and his resting place will be glorious.

Isa 11:11 In that day the Lord will reach out his hand a second time to reclaim the surviving remnant of his people from Assyria, from Lower Egypt, from Upper Egypt, from Cush, from Elam, from Babylonia, from Hamath and from the islands of the Mediterranean.

Isa 11:12 He will raise a banner for the nations and gather the exiles of Israel; he will assemble the scattered people of Judah from the four quarters of the earth.

The facts are that James was writing to those being reclaimed, "the remnant" when he wrote to them in the 1st century:

James 1:1 James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ, To the twelve tribes scattered among the nations: Greetings.

To claim that Isaiah is not fulfilled when the Gentiles were brought in is to deny that the Lord had reached "out his hand a second time".

There is no third time.

Peter is also addressing the Ten (scattered) Tribes in his letter:

1 Pet 1:1 Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, to the strangers scattered (Greek - diaspora) throughout Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia,

Diaspora is generally admitted to be a "term" for the Ten tribes - thus we can conclude that the Ten tribes are in view and being "gathered".

Peter virtually quotes word for word the prophesy in Hosea:

1 Pet 2:10 Which in time past were not a people, but are now the people of God: which had not obtained mercy, but now have obtained mercy.

Hosea 1:9 Then said God, Call his name Loammi: for ye are not my people, and I will not be your God.

Hosea 1:11 Then shall the children of Judah and the children of Israel be gathered together, and appoint themselves one head, and they shall come up out of the land: for great shall be the day of Jezreel.

Hosea 2:23 And I will sow her unto me in the earth; and I will have mercy upon her that had not obtained mercy; and I will say to them which were not my people, Thou art my people; and they shall say, Thou art my God.

And to nail home the point that it is the diaspora of Israel that is being gathered in the 1st century AD Peter previously stated:

1 Pet 1:10 Of which salvation the prophets have inquired and searched diligently, who prophesied of the grace that should come unto you.


Paul claimed that Israel was receiving the promises - but that only a remnant of them would be saved:

Rom 9:27 Esaias also crieth concerning Israel, Though the number of the children of Israel be as the sand of the sea, a remnant shall be saved:

Rom 9:28 For he will finish the work, and cut it short in righteousness: because a short work will the Lord make upon the earth.

The "short work" and "he will finish the work" all relate to the 2nd Exodus under way in the 1st century AD and "finished" in the destruction of Jerusalem and the Temple in 70 AD. lo

Therefore the remnant of all the tribes were gathered in the 1st century AD.

 

[eternally-gratefull]

I would also add that James addresses them as "My Brethern".......so that leaves us two possibilities that must be pondered...

a. He is just addressing the Jewish people who have been scattered abroad in the sense of national kinship
b. He is actually addressing Hebrew Christians that have been scattered abroad

Also...if written by the half brother of JESUS, we must take into account that James was martyred in 62 A.D.........

The big questions are......

What event caused them to be scattered
Is he addressing believers or just Israeli Kinsmen
When was the book actually written
Which James wrote the book

The above would give an accurate time line and help apply the book to who it was intended.........

I think he shows in James 2 that not everyone he spoke to were christians. For some of them he told to test their faith, to see if it was a living faith (which saves) or a dead faith (which is powerless to save)

So I would view when he says bretheryn to be talkin gabout his kin. As paul did in Romans 9 when he said Isreal were his bretheryn, whome he loved, so much he would give up his salatioon if all of them could be saved.

 

[eternally-gratefull]

All the books addressed to Israel? Really? Paul wrote to the body of Christ not Israel. Paul wished his brethren according to the flesh, the nation of Israel would be saved.

Lol. You did not prove your point. All you did was give your opinion. You have any proof?

James is allowed to do what ever he wants. Paul write to the Corinthian church, and another letter to the Ephesians, and another to a man (Timothy) does that mean paul was evil, because he did not address it to the whole churhc.

Again, Your reasoning in a lot of stuff is flawed. I pray one day you open up to this fact.

 

[eternally-gratefull]

Since James calls himself a servant of the Lord Jesus Christ, it should be crystal clear that this is A CHRISTIAN EPISTLE. At the time of his writing there were many Hebrew Christians scattered throughout the Roman empire. Those from the ten "lost" tribes were not visible to men, but certainly visible to God. Since God is the ultimate Author of this epistle, all the redeemed of Israel are being addressed here. But that does not exclude Gentile Christians in the least. Just as the epistle to the Hebrews is primarily for Hebrew Christians and secondarily for all Christians, the epistles of James and Peter are also designed in this way. The teachings are for all Christians.

That does not mean he was not writing a love letter to his people.. Jews were christians first. Then the word went out.

 

[John146]

Since James calls himself a servant of the Lord Jesus Christ, it should be crystal clear that this is A CHRISTIAN EPISTLE. At the time of his writing there were many Hebrew Christians scattered throughout the Roman empire. Those from the ten "lost" tribes were not visible to men, but certainly visible to God. Since God is the ultimate Author of this epistle, all the redeemed of Israel are being addressed here. But that does not exclude Gentile Christians in the least. Just as the epistle to the Hebrews is primarily for Hebrew Christians and secondarily for all Christians, the epistles of James and Peter are also designed in this way. The teachings are for all Christians.

I'm not willing to contradict the rest of Scripture to make James a Christian epistle. Besides, it's obvious that there were those in James's audience who had no received the word of God and needed their souls saved. See post #12.

 

[John146]

Lol. You did not prove your point. All you did was give your opinion. You have any proof?

James is allowed to do what ever he wants. Paul write to the Corinthian church, and another letter to the Ephesians, and another to a man (Timothy) does that mean paul was evil, because he did not address it to the whole churhc.

Again, Your reasoning in a lot of stuff is flawed. I pray one day you open up to this fact.

What goes for the body of Christ 2,000 years ago, goes for the body of Christ today. Paul's letters open with his audience. For instance, the book of 1 Corinthians he states:

2 Unto the church of God which is at Corinth, to them that are sanctified in Christ Jesus, called to be saints, with all that in every place call upon the name of Jesus Christ our Lord, both their's and our's:

Paul later states:

For this cause have I sent unto you Timotheus, who is my beloved son, and faithful in the Lord, who shall bring you into remembrance of my ways which be in Christ, as I teach every where in every church.

 

[garee]

A question about his Epistle, and why he words his introduction the way he does.

James 1:1) James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ, to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad, greeting.

What I am wondering about is the statement "to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad."

Isn't it odd that he would say "twelve tribes?" How is it possible that all twelve tribes had been "scattered abroad" by 49AD which is when it is believed he wrote his Epistle?

Yes odd? As odd as a city describing a wife .I would think we would look to the spiritual understanding .

I would offer. "twelve tribes?"with "scattered abroad would seem to point to those that represent the gospel as in how beautiful are their feet of the sent out ones (apostles) They are shod with the hope of the gospel of peace..

James as an apostle in respect to twelve, a remnant of the all the apostles is described in Revelation as the wall of the city of Christ as the bride of Christ. His tribe would represent the gates by which they go out. It would seem the use of both gates and wall as picture to His bride spreading the gospel among all the nations of the world. The Holy Spirit gives us a beautiful picture of what we will be.

Having the glory of God: and her light was like unto a stone most precious, even like a jasper stone, clear as crystal;And had a wall great and high, and had twelve gates, and at the gates twelve angels, and names written thereon, which are the names of the twelve tribes of the children of Israel:On the east three gates; on the north three gates; on the south three gates; and on the west three gates.And the wall of the city had twelve foundations, and in them the names of the twelve apostles of the Lamb.And he that talked with me had a golden reed to measure the city, and the gates thereof, and the wall thereof.And the city lieth foursquare, and the length is as large as the breadth: and he measured the city with the reed, twelve thousand furlongs. The length and the breadth and the height of it are equal.And he measured the wall thereof, an hundred and forty and four cubits, according to the measure of a man, that is, of the angel. .Rev 21:11-17

According the measure of man not according to the measure of the spiritual understanding .Using the word thousand to signify a unknown . God does not give the literal number of His church .Men would be quick to fill it in making it a law as evidence they have been given a new spirit.

And I heard the number of them which were sealed: and there were sealed an hundred and forty and four thousand of all the tribes of the children of Israel.Of the tribe of Juda were sealed twelve thousand. Of the tribe of Reuben were sealed twelve thousand. Of the tribe of Gad were sealed twelve thousand.Of the tribe of Aser were sealed twelve thousand. Of the tribe of Nephthalim were sealed twelve thousand. Of the tribe of Manasses were sealed twelve thousand.Of the tribe of Simeon were sealed twelve thousand. Of the tribe of Levi were sealed twelve thousand. Of the tribe of Issachar were sealed twelve thousand.Of the tribe of Zabulon were sealed twelve thousand. Of the tribe of Joseph were sealed twelve thousand. Of the tribe of Benjamin were sealed twelve thousand., and palms in their hands;And cried with a loud voice, saying, Salvation to our God which sitteth upon the throne, and unto the Lamb. Rev 7:4-10

Up until the great number no man could count (the whole body as the bride of Chris) . The old testament born again saints were represented by tribes they both worked together (tribes and apostles) to represent a unknown . God does not give literal numbers in that way. We walk by faith .

After this I beheld, and, lo, a great multitude, which no man could number, of all nations, and kindreds, and people, and tongues, stood before the throne, and before the Lamb, clothed with white robes