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S
Both the KJV and NIV uphold the deity of Jesus without hesitation. In some passages the NIV is much more emphatic about it. Due to differences in textual variances found in the manuscripts sometimes the KJV has terms associate with Jesus not found in the NIV. For instance: there are times when the full expression Lord Jesus Christ may simply be Jesus Christ or Christ Jesus.
Neither version does any violence to the deity of Christ.
BTW - I use both versions, but mostly the NKJV or ESV.
Neither version does any violence to the deity of Christ.
BTW - I use both versions, but mostly the NKJV or ESV.
C
I read the king James in many reason
1. It is one of the closes translation to the real thing in English
2. It is authorized to be used when ever how ever without permission from man
3. It real English because american English is not as theirs
4. It is the oldest and I like to read it
Other versions help but I would use because to me it is helpful somewhat in understanding GOD's word
1. It is one of the closes translation to the real thing in English
2. It is authorized to be used when ever how ever without permission from man
3. It real English because american English is not as theirs
4. It is the oldest and I like to read it
Other versions help but I would use because to me it is helpful somewhat in understanding GOD's word
J
I read the KJV for different reasons,one I was raised on it and I believe it to be God breath and Holy Spirit led.I do not think reading it will do anything for or against you unless you have the guidence of the Holy Spirit,that is the key to reading and studying Gods word.The Spirit and Word of God will always agree.Anyway,good question,may God bless and keep you all,AMEN
For those who would care to answer this title question, please consider this: the KJV and NIV differ on the very first sentence of the bible (Gen 1:1); therefore, only one of them is correct: and if a bible is incorrect on the first sentence, can anything else that follows be trusted? Really, if the first sentence of a math book read '1+1=3', would you then be foolish enough to try and learn the truth from it?
So, which is right, the KJV or the NIV? The way i intrepret Gen 1:1 is that after the first sentence there was then in existence a place called the earth and a place called heaven, not heavens (plural) as the NIV (and most other bibles) translate.
So, which is right, the KJV or the NIV? The way i intrepret Gen 1:1 is that after the first sentence there was then in existence a place called the earth and a place called heaven, not heavens (plural) as the NIV (and most other bibles) translate.
S
Really thats a moot point. I don't know the Hebrew word used for "Heavens" in Gen 1:1, but i would wager its referring to the sky. Not only that but the sentence "In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth." is grammatically incorrect. To be honest if you think heaven should not be plural in this passage then it should probably read: "In the beginning God created heaven and earth". When i was a child reading the KJV i scribbled in an "S" after Heaven in Gen 1:1. Yes the wording bugged me that much.
Yes Seaco711, your pastor is correct.
Although the NIV is probably the predominant pew bible in most protestant churches in the English-speaking world, the NASB and ESV translations are generally considered to be more literate and more accurate. Or at least that seems to be the consensus arrived at by the currently prevailing weight of authority (i.e. - those who know best).
Although the NIV is probably the predominant pew bible in most protestant churches in the English-speaking world, the NASB and ESV translations are generally considered to be more literate and more accurate. Or at least that seems to be the consensus arrived at by the currently prevailing weight of authority (i.e. - those who know best).