The Sons of God: The Lineage of Godly Men

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B

Baruch

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#1
By His grace, the subject of the sons of God being of the lineage of godly men shall be addressed so as to ward off any false teachings regarding the angels (fallen or otherwise) mingling with the daughters of men. May God cause the increase.

Luke 3:38 Which was the son of Enos, which was the son of Seth, which was the son of Adam, which was the son of God.

This is the reference as to why the Old Testament was written in such a way to validate that the people of Israel were of the lineage of God's chosen people. The sons of God holds no other significance to the people of Israel other than of being of the godly lineage.

Genesis 3:20 And Adam called his wife's name Eve; because she was the mother of all living.

This is a reference to all the living.. before and after the Flood were related to Eve.

Malachi 2:10 Have we not all one father? hath not one God created us? why do we deal treacherously every man against his brother, by profaning the covenant of our fathers?

This is the reference that Adam is the father of mankind as all of man were related to him before and after the Flood.

1 Peter 3:20 Which sometime were disobedient, when once the longsuffering of God waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was a preparing, wherein few, that is, eight souls were saved by water.

This is the reference that proves there were no other "races" or other "mankind" on that ark except Noah and his family. Only eight souls were saved.

Acts 17:26 And hath made of one blood all nations of men for to dwell on all the face of the earth, and hath determined the times before appointed, and the bounds of their habitation;

This is the reference that proves no intermingling by angels or fallen angels has occurred before or after the Flood.


Genesis 4: 1And Adam knew Eve his wife; and she conceived, and bare Cain, and said, I have gotten a man from the LORD.

This is the refuting of all Serpent Seed doctrine and angels being the sons of God by the Word of God.



God created marriage to be between a man and a woman. He would not unite an angel let alone a fallen angel in marriage and yet the sons of God saw the daughters of men as desireable and took them to be their wives so the sons of God had to be of the lineage of godly men. Offsprings were still men as God ordained and set the parameters in creation for kind to reproduce after their own kind. Man cannot mingle with animals just as angels cannot mingle with women.

1 Corinthians 15:36Thou fool, that which thou sowest is not quickened, except it die: 37And that which thou sowest, thou sowest not that body that shall be, but bare grain, it may chance of wheat, or of some other grain:38But God giveth it a body as it hath pleased him, and to every seed his own body. 39All flesh is not the same flesh: but there is one kind of flesh of men, another flesh of beasts, another of fishes, and another of birds. 40There are also celestial bodies, and bodies terrestrial: but the glory of the celestial is one, and the glory of the terrestrial is another.

This is the reference that there is no way a celestial body can mingle with the terrestrial when verse 38 declares that no flesh that is not the same cannot reproduce.


As all flesh is not the same flesh, and to every seed his own body, then the celestial which are not marrying nor given in marriage, and neither are there any seeds after their own kind as a celestial being, even in a fallen state, cannot reproduce between mankind any more than mankind can reproduce with animals. Why? Because God has ordained it.

Too much credence has been given to Satan and his fallen angels as interfering in God's plan in creation. For all the bravado, Satan cannot do anything unless God permits it.

If Jesus said that angels are not marrying nor given in marriage, then by the union God gives in marriage, the sons of God cannot be angels for them to be able to take the daughters of men as "wives" to be called "wives". Do you really think God is ordaining same sex union even though some sinner is joining them? In God's eyes, they are still not married. Then neither are angels created to not be marrying nor given in marriage would be taking wives as joined to be one flesh by God being how they are not the same flesh. Certainly be not of truth to still call them the sons of God if they be fallen agnels to "take wives" unto themselves and thus why would God join them?

Since all life from the womb is of the Lord as children are a heritage from the Lord, nothing can be created outside of Him.

No matter how you look at it, there are mounting contradictions in pursuing this "fable". What is plainly written in scriptures reproves this fable as a false teaching.


Matthew 22:29Jesus answered and said unto them, Ye do err, not knowing the scriptures, nor the power of God. 30For in the resurrection they neither marry, nor are given in marriage, but are as the angels of God in heaven.

I believe Jesus. Do you?

This was one of the reasons why the books of Enoch were dropped.



 

NoahsDad

Senior Member
Oct 30, 2006
594
6
0
#2
1Co 14:38 But if any man be ignorant, let him be ignorant.
 
B

Baruch

Guest
#3
1Co 14:38 But if any man be ignorant, let him be ignorant.
Not quite the same application, brother.

2 Timothy 4:1I charge thee therefore before God, and the Lord Jesus Christ, who shall judge the quick and the dead at his appearing and his kingdom; 2Preach the word; be instant in season, out of season; reprove, rebuke, exhort with all long suffering and doctrine. 3For the time will come when they will not endure sound doctrine; but after their own lusts shall they heap to themselves teachers, having itching ears; 4And they shall turn away their ears from the truth, and shall be turned unto fables. 5But watch thou in all things, endure afflictions, do the work of an evangelist, make full proof of thy ministry. 6For I am now ready to be offered, and the time of my departure is at hand. 7I have fought a good fight, I have finished my course, I have kept the faith: 8Henceforth there is laid up for me a crown of righteousness, which the Lord, the righteous judge, shall give me at that day: and not to me only, but unto all them also that love his appearing.

Certainly cannot use that towards a brother that is a fornicator or practising any other sinful lifestyle.

1 Corinthians 6: 8Nay, ye do wrong, and defraud, and that your brethren. 9Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind, 10Nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall inherit the kingdom of God. 11And such were some of you: but ye are washed, but ye are sanctified, but ye are justified in the name of the Lord Jesus, and by the Spirit of our God.

The call is to be ready and heeding fables will turn away some from the truth found in the scriptures.
 
C

Cup-of-Ruin

Guest
#4
Genesis 3:20 And Adam called his wife's name Eve; because she was the mother of all living.

This is a reference to all the living.. before and after the Flood were related to Eve.
Genesis 5:1-2 (KJV)

"This is the book of the Generations of Adam. In the day that God created man, in the likeness of God made He him. Male and female created He them: and blessed them and called their name Adam, in the day they were created."

Genesis 5:1-2 (Moffatt Translation)

"Here is the list of Adam's decendants. When God formed man; he made him to resemble God; male and female, he formed them both and blessed them, calling them human on the day that they were formed."

Very important this verse here, as we read, it was God who named both male and female; Adam (human)...it was male Adam who named his female human (Adam)companion "Woman" (Gen2:23)

It is after the Fall that Adam calls his wife's name "Eve" (Gen 3:20) Why did Adam rename his wife? Because of the Fall and God's curse on "Woman" that she would bring forth children (life/life spring) "I will greatly multiply thy sorrow and thy conception; in sorrow thou shalt bring forth children;"

Adam called "Woman" - "Eve" because Adam believed what God had said! This is just so important, because there was no way that Adam could know that this would happen and he knew nothing of childbirth, but he wisely listened to God albeit to late to save his immortal state, but he did start listening and that is why he named "Woman" his companion - "Eve" because he had faith that God was telling the truth and she would bring forth life in the generations of Adam all living, "Eve" Adam reasoned would be the mother of all Adam generations (Gen. 5:1) The Bible is the book of the generations of Adam.

So it was not God who said that Eve is the mother of all living, God did not call her Eve, Adam did, so Adam had know way of knowing that she would be the mother of all living beings, for he had not left the Garden of Eden, so we cannot assume and neither could Adam that Eve was the only human mother on earth, and that is why the Bible begins that verse explaining that this book is the book of the generations of Adam. Nothing to be said in the Bible that there were not other beings on Earth who were not male and female Adam in the Garden of Eden.

Malachi 2:10
Have we not all one father? hath not one God created us? why do we deal treacherously every man against his brother, by profaning the covenant of our fathers?

This is the reference that Adam is the father of mankind as all of man were related to him before and after the Flood.
This is only a reference to Israel, only Israel was in the covenant that Malachi refers to with God at the time, there is no statement that Adam is the father of all human beings alive on Earth or that all human beings are related to Adam.


1 Peter 3:20
Which sometime were disobedient, when once the longsuffering of God waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was a preparing, wherein few, that is, eight souls were saved by water.

This is the reference that proves there were no other "races" or other "mankind" on that ark except Noah and his family. Only eight souls were saved.
Peter refers to baptism - 21"The like figure whereunto even baptism doth also now save us"

You see that Peter says that 8 souls were saved by a like kind water baptism, that is a statement of referral. It does not mean that only 8 souls were left alive after the flood, it says "8 souls were saved by water"!


Acts 17:26
And hath made of one blood all nations of men for to dwell on all the face of the earth, and hath determined the times before appointed, and the bounds of their habitation;

This is the reference that proves no intermingling by angels or fallen angels has occurred before or after the Flood.
Acts 17:26

E.W Bullinger notes in the 'Companion Bible' of the Authorized Version of 1611 that:

"26. one blood. The texts omit "blood". The one means either Adam or the dust of which he was formed"

Original manuscript texts all omit the word "blood" it's a mistranslation, the KJV has quite a few, this example is one of the worst mistranslations.

All beings are made of the same dust Adam was made from, but blood comes from God. Bible does not mean that we all have the same blood.



Genesis 4: 1
And Adam knew Eve his wife; and she conceived, and bare Cain, and said, I have gotten a man from the LORD.
A lot more to it, there are different translations and it would behoove you to read this in both Greek and Hebrew, Lord is a title and does not say that Adam is the father, Eve if there was a sexual union with Satan may have said just that, it's ambiguous, she may have meant LORD God actually claiming that the life of the child came ultimately from God, so being deliberately ambiguous, the verse certainly does not rule out serpent seed doctrine.


 
B

Baruch

Guest
#5
So it was not God who said that Eve is the mother of all living, God did not call her Eve, Adam did, ....
Matthew 26:54But how then shall the scriptures be fulfilled, that thus it must be?

John 10:35If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken;

Acts 1:16Men and brethren, this scripture must needs have been fulfilled, which the Holy Ghost by the mouth of David spake before concerning Judas, which was guide to them that took Jesus.

Romans 1:1Paul, a servant of Jesus Christ, called to be an apostle, separated unto the gospel of God, 2(Which he had promised afore by his prophets in the holy scriptures,) 3Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord...

2 Timothy 3:15And that from a child thou hast known the holy scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus.16All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: 17That the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works.


2 Peter 1:19We have also a more sure word of prophecy; whereunto ye do well that ye take heed, as unto a light that shineth in a dark place, until the day dawn, and the day star arise in your hearts: 20Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation. 21For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.

So the account in Genesis and everywhere else is correct. You are reading too much into those verses as being written by man. Adam did not write Genesis and thus proves you are reading too much into it. God relayed the account through the Holy Spirit of those men writing the scriptures as scriptures are considered as holy and not to be broken for then how can any believer say that the prophecies were fulfilled if one can change them to suit anyone as their coming promised Messiah?
 
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