Please answer about remarriage

[PneumaPsucheSoma]

True enough. However, the "uncleanness" given as a legitimate reason for divorce was not, "I got tired of the sex," or "I met someone I like better," or any number of excuses for marital failure in our society.

I didn't say so, and I'm not advocating easy divorce. I'm coming against the ignorance and stubbornness of those who contend any divorced person can't remarry without it being adultery and they should remain single and celebate.

Jesus and Paul were dealing with GUILTY spouses VERBALLY divorcing their INNOCENT spouses without a writ. Jesus about Jewish culture. Paul about Roman culture.

The penalty for adultery was death, not divorce. By all means, though, let's just follow traditions of indoctrination.

 

[SantoSubito]

[FONT=Comic Sans MS, cursive]While I respect the notion of the Greek, the NT was actually penned in Aramaic and translated into Greek.[/FONT]


[FONT=Comic Sans MS, cursive]Paul, a Jew's Jew, would not write letters to other Jews in a language he considered inferior. He was, by far, the most formally educated of the NT writers. Yet, even he would not be as fluent in writing Greek as he would Hebrew. Certainly, Peter would have had less confidence in Greek than Hebrew.[/FONT]


[FONT=Comic Sans MS, cursive]You might investigate the Aramaic/English New Testament by Andrew Gabriel Roth or the Complete Jewish Bible by David Stern. They are very useful in just this kind of situation.[/FONT]

Thats not really true. Greek was the lingua franca of the Eastern Roman world, and everyone who had the opportunity to learn it did. Luke for example lived in the Greco-Syrian city of Antioch and almost certainly spoke Greek since he was a physician.

Similarly Matthew as a tax collector would have been literate in Greek, and likely would have penned his Gospel in Greek so that it could reach the widest possible audience. It's also impossible to think John wrote his Gospel in Aramaic since his Gospel exhibits such a high literary quality in Greek, something that could not be accomplished from a simple translation. Mark grew up in the Greek speaking city of Cyrene so he would have been fluent in Greek as well. It is possible that a few of Paul's letters would have been in Aramaic, but since Phillipians exhibits such an exceptional literary Greek quality we are forced to assume that he also spoke Greek.

 

[mpaper345]

Some people marry hastily,especially when they are young,and then realize they have made a mistake,for they were not right each other enough like they thought,which people should take it slow when wanting to marry someone to make sure I can tolerate this person for the rest of my life and get along with them.

But the truth is once someone is married it is supposed to be a commitment for the rest of your life,and you made the choice so you are stuck with it,and you can only remarry if the other person breaks the commitment by cheating on you or if they die.

 

[PneumaPsucheSoma]

What was the penalty for adultery? Anyone?!

 

[TheAristocat]

I'll exegete the whole passage shortly. (I'm iPhone bound.)

You didn't and can't. It's you who's bluffing with no language knowledge.

You also didn't bother to address Deut. 24 or clarify why the penalty for adultery suddenly changed from death to divorce.

Sheesh, you're stubborn AND ignorant.

In Matthew there is also the Roman question that I have not yet seen being taken into consideration. The Romans had rule over the Israelites and did not permit them to adhere to capital punishment within God's Torah. That is, I believe, why Jesus was crucified by the Romans instead of stoned by the Israelites. The Romans had the final authority in capital punishment, and I don't think it was in their laws to kill someone for adultery. But if the word is fornication then it is fornication. Just adding my two cents.

This fornication would also be discovered upon the night of the consummation. If the woman was discovered to have fornicated, then and possibly only then was divorce allowed. If she fornicated with another within marriage then it was adultery and she was killed (according to God's teachings). But the Romans also would not allow this.

 

[TheAristocat]

In Matthew there is also the Roman question that I have not yet seen being taken into consideration. The Romans had rule over the Israelites and did not permit them to adhere to capital punishment within God's Torah. That is, I believe, why Jesus was crucified by the Romans instead of stoned by the Israelites. The Romans had the final authority in capital punishment, and I don't think it was in their laws to kill someone for adultery. But if the word is fornication then it is fornication. Just adding my two cents.

This fornication would also be discovered upon the night of the consummation. If the woman was discovered to have fornicated, then and possibly only then was divorce allowed. If she fornicated with another within marriage then it was adultery and she was killed (according to God's teachings). But the Romans also would not allow this.

I should also add that this was the red tape the religious leaders and teachers tried to trap Jesus in. They told him that she should be stoned according to God's teachings, and if Jesus rejected this then they could accuse him of being a godless man. If Jesus went along with it then they could accuse him of defying Rome and have the Romans punish him. Either way it did not seem like a good situation for him. But he managed his way around this trap of theirs by consenting to obedience to Torah but on the condition that only a sinless man should condemn a sinful woman. Since all of the men there were sinful none of them condemned the sinful woman. In this way Jesus did not teach against God's Torah and also avoided falling into the hands of the Romans prematurely.

 

[lookuptoseeJesus]

Please I would like an answer to this question: if a Christian falls into sin by committing adultery and then divorces but years later rededicates himself/herself to God, is he/she allowed to remarry?
Thank you.

No, that would be abomination in the land.

 

[iwant2serve]

Please I would like an answer to this question: if a Christian falls into sin by committing adultery and then divorces but years later rededicates himself/herself to God, is he/she allowed to remarry?
Thank you.

Many call divorce a sin yet I have not read in the Bible wher it is called a sin. Yes the Bible says God hates divorce and from the beginning it was not so. Divorce happens for many different reasons yet to remarry is addressed in the Bible. Jesus says whoever divorces and remarrys except for fornication commits adultry and whoever is put away and remarries is commiting adultry.
No you cannot remarry although many will say because you are forgiven you are free to remarry. Let me ask this if I murder will God forgive me? Yes he will. Does that give me the right to murder again? No.