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I have a couple questions that have been burning in me for quite some time. Any help or insight would be greatly appreciated.
1) What is the reason why the book of Enoch isn't considered canonical or inspired when there's little doubt 1 Enoch was influential in molding New Testament doctrines about the Messiah, the Son of Man, the messianic kingdom, demonology, the resurrection, and eschatology ? Verses such as the one in Jude 1:14 And Enoch also, the seventh from Adam, prophesied of these, saying, Behold, the Lord cometh with ten thousands of his saints,
_ and the verse in 1Peter 2:4
For if God spared not the angels that sinned, but cast them down to hell, and delivered them into chains of darkness, to be reserved unto judgement.
_ A clear allusion to the book of Enoch. I've heard so many different things such as it being a book of Enochian magic and Jewish mysticism and all kinds of things like this but really, what's the reason?
2) The account of the tower of Babel was after the flood and all of mankind had one language. So the cities of sumer
Must have been before the flood because Cain went to the land of Ur after killing Abel, right?
But if that's true, then that would mean all the cities of Sumer had one language and that's not true, so did it go from many languages, to the flood, to one language and then back to many?
1) What is the reason why the book of Enoch isn't considered canonical or inspired when there's little doubt 1 Enoch was influential in molding New Testament doctrines about the Messiah, the Son of Man, the messianic kingdom, demonology, the resurrection, and eschatology ? Verses such as the one in Jude 1:14 And Enoch also, the seventh from Adam, prophesied of these, saying, Behold, the Lord cometh with ten thousands of his saints,
_ and the verse in 1Peter 2:4
For if God spared not the angels that sinned, but cast them down to hell, and delivered them into chains of darkness, to be reserved unto judgement.
_ A clear allusion to the book of Enoch. I've heard so many different things such as it being a book of Enochian magic and Jewish mysticism and all kinds of things like this but really, what's the reason?
2) The account of the tower of Babel was after the flood and all of mankind had one language. So the cities of sumer
But if that's true, then that would mean all the cities of Sumer had one language and that's not true, so did it go from many languages, to the flood, to one language and then back to many?