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I'm So confused by this bible verse. Of course, you probably already know which one it is. - Matthew 5:32 (KJV) states:
"But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery."
Another version states:
"But I say to you, any man who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, causes her to commit adultery, and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery."
Other Statements:
Mark 10:11
"He answered, 'Anyone who divorces his wife and marries another woman commits adultery against her.'"
Luke 16:18
"'Anyone who divorces his wife and marries another woman commits adultery, and the man who marries a divorced woman commits adultery.'"
Adultery is stated in the Ten Commandments, it tells us not to commit to it - therefore, it's considered Sin.
Now, the questions I'm asking is according to the world TODAY - in 2012.
If a man Divorces his wife for other reasons besides Adultery, does this Not qualify as sin? What if he Doesn't remarry?
Also, If that is, why does this automatically cause his Wife to commit adultery if she does find someone better and well suited for her?
Also, If the better and well suited man were to marry this divorced woman, how is that sinning on his part? He cannot control how he feels for her If he's in love with her, but regardless - if he does this, it automatically means that he's commiting adultery, therefore - he's commiting to sin, Why is this?
It's not the Divorced wife's fault that her husband divorced her because (for example) he doesn't like her anymore, or for any other reason Besides Sexual Immoralty or Adultery; so if she does get lonely or so, and actually finds someone better for her - how does this means that she automatically commits adultery, even if there's no possible way of getting back with her original husband because he doesn't want her back?
Even with all of this said, I may just be extremely confused.
Although it causes the divorced wife and a new husband who marries her to Sin (adultery) - because the sin is Caused by the original husband who no longer wants his wife because of reasons other than adultery, does this mean that the sin caused by the Divorced (now remarried) wife and new husband is Forgiven according to Them, but the same Sin is also Blamed towards the original husband and is Not forgiven according to him (unless of course he asks for forgiveness)?
Basically, does the orignal husband take Blame for their sins because He Caused it?
If Not, is the Divorced wife Forced to not remarry or to fall in love ever again? If she does - is it a Continous sin - even though it's intended for good reasons towards the new Husband and Her? Or does she ask for forgiveness for this sin Once because she knows it's a sin - But it's intended for good reasons And there's no way for her to get back with her original husband?
With all of this being said, I didn't even Begin to mention if a wife divorces a husband because of Abusive reasons.
If a wife divorces a husband because of Abusive reasons, and decides to remarry to someone better and well suited for her - is she Still commiting a sin, even though her original husband Abused her?
If so, is it a Continuous sin Because she remains with the new husband, or could she ask for forgiveness Once and could still continue to be with her new loving husband?
I personally figured that if a Husband abuses his Wife that technically they're not Married - Marriage is a loving commitment, and of course if you're mentally and physically giving someone serious harm, then you're not in love with her.
If they engaged in sexual intercourse before, this means that they're now fornicators - BUT, since the Husband (or whoever abuses the other) abused his wife, he should take the blame for it because he never truly loved her since he decides to beat up or mentally harm her.
Do you believe that I may be correct with that statement?
I know I kept on blabbering, but the main question is:
With this statement being made:
"But I say to you, any man who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, causes her to commit adultery, and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery."
1.If a man Divorces his wife for other reasons besides Adultery, does this Not qualify as sin? What if he Doesn't remarry?
2. If the original husband divorces his wife because of Another reason besides sexual immorality and there is No Chance with him ever wanting to go back with her, does he take the Blame for the wife and her new husband's sins (adultery) Because he's the cause of it?
3.If Not, is the Divorced wife Forced to not remarry or to fall in love ever again?
4.If she does - is it a Continous sin even though it's intended for good reasons towards the new Husband and Her? Or does she ask for forgiveness for this sin Once because she knows it's a sin - But it's intended for good reasons And there's no way for her to get back with her original husband?
5.How do you feel about an Abusive Marriage? How do you feel about my statement towards divorce when it comes to it (optional, you don't have to answer this part..)?
If you skipped most of this and are just willing to answer these questions Without reading my whole explanation - PLEASE go back and Fully read it to answer my questions properly - it's worth it. I just really need help with this.
"But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery."
Another version states:
"But I say to you, any man who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, causes her to commit adultery, and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery."
Other Statements:
Mark 10:11
"He answered, 'Anyone who divorces his wife and marries another woman commits adultery against her.'"
Luke 16:18
"'Anyone who divorces his wife and marries another woman commits adultery, and the man who marries a divorced woman commits adultery.'"
Adultery is stated in the Ten Commandments, it tells us not to commit to it - therefore, it's considered Sin.
Now, the questions I'm asking is according to the world TODAY - in 2012.
If a man Divorces his wife for other reasons besides Adultery, does this Not qualify as sin? What if he Doesn't remarry?
Also, If that is, why does this automatically cause his Wife to commit adultery if she does find someone better and well suited for her?
Also, If the better and well suited man were to marry this divorced woman, how is that sinning on his part? He cannot control how he feels for her If he's in love with her, but regardless - if he does this, it automatically means that he's commiting adultery, therefore - he's commiting to sin, Why is this?
It's not the Divorced wife's fault that her husband divorced her because (for example) he doesn't like her anymore, or for any other reason Besides Sexual Immoralty or Adultery; so if she does get lonely or so, and actually finds someone better for her - how does this means that she automatically commits adultery, even if there's no possible way of getting back with her original husband because he doesn't want her back?
Even with all of this said, I may just be extremely confused.
Although it causes the divorced wife and a new husband who marries her to Sin (adultery) - because the sin is Caused by the original husband who no longer wants his wife because of reasons other than adultery, does this mean that the sin caused by the Divorced (now remarried) wife and new husband is Forgiven according to Them, but the same Sin is also Blamed towards the original husband and is Not forgiven according to him (unless of course he asks for forgiveness)?
Basically, does the orignal husband take Blame for their sins because He Caused it?
If Not, is the Divorced wife Forced to not remarry or to fall in love ever again? If she does - is it a Continous sin - even though it's intended for good reasons towards the new Husband and Her? Or does she ask for forgiveness for this sin Once because she knows it's a sin - But it's intended for good reasons And there's no way for her to get back with her original husband?
With all of this being said, I didn't even Begin to mention if a wife divorces a husband because of Abusive reasons.
If a wife divorces a husband because of Abusive reasons, and decides to remarry to someone better and well suited for her - is she Still commiting a sin, even though her original husband Abused her?
If so, is it a Continuous sin Because she remains with the new husband, or could she ask for forgiveness Once and could still continue to be with her new loving husband?
I personally figured that if a Husband abuses his Wife that technically they're not Married - Marriage is a loving commitment, and of course if you're mentally and physically giving someone serious harm, then you're not in love with her.
If they engaged in sexual intercourse before, this means that they're now fornicators - BUT, since the Husband (or whoever abuses the other) abused his wife, he should take the blame for it because he never truly loved her since he decides to beat up or mentally harm her.
Do you believe that I may be correct with that statement?
I know I kept on blabbering, but the main question is:
With this statement being made:
"But I say to you, any man who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, causes her to commit adultery, and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery."
1.If a man Divorces his wife for other reasons besides Adultery, does this Not qualify as sin? What if he Doesn't remarry?
2. If the original husband divorces his wife because of Another reason besides sexual immorality and there is No Chance with him ever wanting to go back with her, does he take the Blame for the wife and her new husband's sins (adultery) Because he's the cause of it?
3.If Not, is the Divorced wife Forced to not remarry or to fall in love ever again?
4.If she does - is it a Continous sin even though it's intended for good reasons towards the new Husband and Her? Or does she ask for forgiveness for this sin Once because she knows it's a sin - But it's intended for good reasons And there's no way for her to get back with her original husband?
5.How do you feel about an Abusive Marriage? How do you feel about my statement towards divorce when it comes to it (optional, you don't have to answer this part..)?
If you skipped most of this and are just willing to answer these questions Without reading my whole explanation - PLEASE go back and Fully read it to answer my questions properly - it's worth it. I just really need help with this.