Divorce except for unchastity is adultery?

[Alw]

I have studied this topic for years. The LORD showed me that fornication was indeed sex that had occurred before the marriage just as the case of the betrothal period where Joseph was going to but away his wife Mary. However I could really never prove it until recently. god gave me a revelation. You can not read a book (kjv wrote in 1611) written over four hundred years ago and apply the modern day definition of those words to it. There is actually a study of how the meanings of words change over time. It is called etymology. So just so happens that when the LORD gave me this revelation which was this month Nov 2015, that the first google search revealed that the first English dictionary called the "A Table Alphabetical" by Robert Cawdrey was printed in 1604. Why is this important? Well the kjv began being written in 1604 also and was completed in 1611. This way God gives us the meaning of the word fornication of the time to those who wrote the bible. Also just so happened that this dictionary was to be reprinted for the first time and to be released 7 days from when I done my google searcpery the University of Chicago Press. So I ordered the book it was just $15. And it says the definition of fornication it : uncleanness between single persons. Then I also done a search of the Geneva bible that was written a little while before the kjv. And what I found in the Notes Section of the Geneva bible in Matthew chapter 1 where Joseph was thinking of putting Mary away? Well the Notes say he was thinking of putting her away for Fornication because she was pregnant before they had gotten married! So these 2 things clearly prove that this was the thought and understanding of the fornication clause at the time the bible was written. Do you not see how any dictionary after the kjv was written needs to be questioned by highly sensitive verses like found in Matthew. Any dictionary written after kjv could purposely alter the definitions of the words to try and make the bible say what they want it to say!

 

[Magenta]

Fornication is sexual intercourse between any two persons not
married to each other. This would include adultery, not exclude it.

 

[Alw]

Sorry Magenta but you are wrong. When someone has been married and then that person has sex with anyone else besides their own spouse then that person is committing adultry and the person having sex with them is committing adultry. It does not matter if the person they are having sex with is a virgin, is married to someone else or whatever, they are still committing adultry. However if two people that are not married have sex then that is fornication. I honestly do not know why I even bother. Most people do not want the truth. We are in the last days after all and to follow the LORD is a difficult narrow road. People will continue to distort the meaning of words to make the Bible say whatever they want it to say. For example in the nrsv fornication is even translated as chastity in Matthew. Well everybody knew that meant to keep ones virginity, hence the chastity belts that used to be in use. Lol but know the modern definition writers have even broadened that term to mean just about anything. It is like this. Jesus never made a loophole for divorce. If he did then that means we do not have to forgive a spouse that cheats. Also look at all the people who may want out of a marriage that then refuse to give their spouse due belovance and then force that spouse into a very temptations situation say by hiring a very hot nanny. They the wife just waits on the husband to cheat and then she can say. O I am free to divorce you and marry who I want cause you cheated!

 

[Magenta]

Dictionaries disagree with you, Alw. Adultery is simply a specific type of fornication. Christiananswers.net diesagrees with you, also. Here is what they have to say on the matter:

Fornication

Hebrew: zanah / Greek: porneia
Voluntary sexual intercourse between a man and woman who are not married to each other is a common type of fornication. Adultery is a type of fornication.

“The Greek word for ‘fornication’ (porneia) could include any sexual sin committed after the betrothal contract. …In Biblical usage, ‘fornication’ can mean any sexual congress outside monogamous marriage. It thus includes not only premarital sex, but also adultery,homosexual acts, incest, remarriage after un-Biblical divorce, and sexual acts with animals, all of which are explicitly forbidden in the lawas given through Moses (Leviticus 20:10-21). Christ expanded the prohibition against adultery to include even sexual lusting (Matthew 5:28).” (Dr. Henry M. Morris)


​

In every form, fornication is sternly condemned by the Mosaic law among God's people, the Israelites (Lev. 21:9; 19:29;Deut. 22:20-11, 23-29; 23:18; Ex. 22:16). (See ADULTERY.)

Fornication is also mentioned many times in the New Testament (Matt. 5:32; 19:9; John 8:41; Acts 15:20, 29; 21:25; Rom. 1:29; 1 Cor 5:1, 6:13, 18, 7:2; 10:8; 2 Cor 12:21; Gal 5:19; Eph 5:3; Col 3:5; 1 Thess. 4:3; Jude 1:7; Rev. 2:14, 20-21; 9:21; 14:8; 17:2,4).

The word “fornication” is sometimes used in a symbolic sense in the Bible, for example, meaning a forsaking of God or a following after idols(idolatry—Isa. 1:2; Jer. 2:20; Ezek. 16; Hos. 1:2; 2:1-5; Jer. 3:8-9).

http://christiananswers.net/dictionary/fornication.html

Unlike you, I do know why I bother. People need to know the truth.

 

[Alw]

There were two schools of thought on divorce at time of Jesus , Shammai and Hillel. One believed you could divorce for any reason the other thought for adultry only. Jesus disagreed with both. That is why the disciples were astonished and said if the case be so with a man and his wife then it is best not to marry and Jesus himself went on to talk about being an enuch or celibate for the kingdom of heavens sake. Also, Magenta, I agree that the MoDERN day dictionaries disagree with me. however the dictionaries from the time that the kjv was written do not.

 

[Sanfam]

I am actually well versed on this. But I am sure you already have some good answers. The word used in Matt. 5:31-32 and Matt. 19:9 is porneia. But the gospel of Matthew was probably written in Hebrew than transcribed into Greek (as said by our early church fathers like Jerome and others). Porneia is not a common word in the first century. Of course you probably were told this is the root word where we get porn. It was used by the Jews in the Septuagint. This was an early writing of the Torah for the Egyptian King for the Great Alexandrian library. This word was used to explain the word "harlot" or prostitute. It can be used for sexual immorality but in actuality it is a vague word probably referring to an immoral sexual lifestyle or the things they might do.

 

[OneFaith]

Ok someone explain this, divorce, and marriage to another is adultry, except for unchastity,
does that mean if the spouse cheated on him? I don't understand what this means.

If a man divorces his wife when she did not cheat on him, and he marries another, he is guilty because the divorce was not valid. It is the same as if he was married to two wives at the same time. In other words, even if you call it a divorce, it does not mean it actually is one according to God- same goes with marriage.

Also, if you marry someone who is divorcED you are guilty, because that person sexually cheated in marriage in order to be genuinely divorcED according to God. To God, you are not divorcED unless you sexually cheated AND your spouse put you away because of it- both must apply.

Now, we are also to go by the laws of the land- which is where we get our marriage license document. If say your spouse is gone for seven years or longer, that marriage is considered severed. And if you live in fornication for seven years, you are considered married.

If your spouse divorces you by Gods definition, YOU can never be married again according to God. If you were cheated on in marriage and divorced your spouse, YOU are free to remarry. The punishment goes with the sin, not with the innocence.

 

[buddyt]

God forgives Sin. God divorced Israel Jeremiah 3:8

 

[Sanfam]

God did not sin in Jer. 3:8. Israel not only was unfaithful by committing spiritual adultery but was living in sin and would not return back home. God did not put Israel out of the house because she already left.

 

[Alw]

Read the whole chapter. Especially Jer. 3:1 and 3:12-14. Thank you! You can not take one verse out of context like that and still reflect the truth.

 

[Sanfam]

Alw, how do you read Jer. 3:1 and 12-14?