In 1 Cor. 10:11 the Greek says, upon whom the ends of the ages have come. This can mean culmination, but it doesn't preclude the fact that there is not a future end. The fact that it's plural makes this point. It is not the singular telos, it is the plural, tela.
My point about syntéleia has reference to Heb. 9, not 1 Cor. 10
The idea that Christ appears at the culmination of the ages is not the idea that it's the termination of the ages, cf. Strong's
4930 /syntéleia ("culminating end, finish") is not strictly "termination" but rather "consummation" (completion) that ushers in a new time-era/age (Mt 13:39,40,49,24:3, 28:20).
[The KJV is misleading by rendering 4930 (syntéleia) as "the end of the world" (i.e. when it occurs with aiōn, "age/epoch"). This expression actually means "at the "consummation of the age," i.e. when it reaches its intended climax (consummated conclusion).]
So in neither 1 Cor. 10 or Heb. 9 is there definitive proof that there is no future fulfillment of the end.
I'll have to respond later about the restoration of the end. Off to watch "Catching Fire" with my wife. Peace.