Can deity die?

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iamsoandso

Senior Member
Oct 6, 2011
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(John 1:1) "...In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God..."


(John 1:14) "...So the Word became flesh and resided among us, and we had a view of his glory, a glory such as belongs to an only-begotten son from a father; and he was full of undeserved kindness and truth..."

If you could be so kind to now show me where it says the Word was both God and Flesh at the same time, as far as I can see the "theos became flesh" and thats it, and not "the theos became flesh and God at the same time" as you cliam it does.
john 10;30,,,,,
 

NWL

Senior Member
Jul 24, 2012
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It says the theos was God.
That is up for debate, that the word was God is merely a translators perceptive of the original language, there is many translations which render the verse otherwise for grammatical and contextual reasons. Plain and simply put I believe "the word was a thoes" for reasoning concerning context of the Bible in its entirety.
 

john832

Senior Member
May 31, 2013
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Richie_2uk

Guest
Do not avoid the question, apparently my question has no merit. Answer me Oldhermit with your exegesis of the texts, did Jesus go to Heaven with man on the day of his death or three and forty days after his resurrection?
Why don't you ask God himself?. instead of relying on the world who don't know and fully understand the Bible?. Everyone has there own thoughts, I say there own, because thats what they are, there own thoughts, not God's true understanding, but there own thoughts. To find answers to the real questions about God. Why not go to God himself? Surely God didn't say in Matthew 7: 7 for NOTHING right?
 

oldhermit

Senior Member
Jul 28, 2012
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Do not avoid the question, apparently my question has no merit. Answer me Oldhermit with your exegesis of the texts, did Jesus go to Heaven with man on the day of his death or three and forty days after his resurrection?
He did precisely what he said he would do. He was in paradise with the thief immediately upon their deaths. (Matthew 12:40) and (John 20:17) have absolutely nothing to do with 23:43. The reason you cannot understand this is because of the reasons I stated earlier. Watchtower theology is faulty at its very core. The reason you do not understand the nature of God is because you operate from a number of false assumptions. Rather that challenge your own assumptions you attempt to manipulate the text. You are simply not being honest with the text.
 

NWL

Senior Member
Jul 24, 2012
433
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I am perplexed as to how John 10:30 shows Jesus was both God and Man at the same time. Tell me jamsoandso does the below text, given its context, show that we too are God in the flesh, since we are one with God the same way Jesus is one with the father?

(John 17:20-22) “...Neither pray I for these alone, but for them also who shall believe on me through their word. That they all may be one; as you, Father, are in me, and I in you, that they also may be one in us..."

Answer please.
 

john832

Senior Member
May 31, 2013
11,365
186
63
He did precisely what he said he would do. He was in paradise with the thief immediately upon their deaths. (Matthew 12:40) and (John 20:17) have absolutely nothing to do with 23:43. The reason you cannot understand this is because of the reasons I stated earlier. Watchtower theology is faulty at its very core. The reason you do not understand the nature of God is because you operate from a number of false assumptions. Rather that challenge your own assumptions you attempt to manipulate the text. You are simply not being honest with the text.
Now you have a real problem. Paradise is the third heaven...

2Co 12:1 It is not expedient for me doubtless to glory. I will come to visions and revelations of the Lord.
2Co 12:2 I knew a man in Christ above fourteen years ago, (whether in the body, I cannot tell; or whether out of the body, I cannot tell: God knoweth;) such an one caught up to the third heaven.
2Co 12:3 And I knew such a man, (whether in the body, or out of the body, I cannot tell: God knoweth;)
2Co 12:4 How that he was caught up into paradise, and heard unspeakable words, which it is not lawful for a man to utter.

Yet over three days and nights later Christ says this...

Joh 20:17 Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.

He says He was not there yet.

He told the thief on that day that in the future, the thief would be with Him in paradise. Put the comma in the correct place.
 
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oldhermit

Senior Member
Jul 28, 2012
9,143
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Put the comma in the correct place.
That cannot be supported by the rules of grammar. Language has rules both in Greek and in English. You cannot defy them simply because they do not agree with you.
 
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cjordan38

Guest
The man went to paradise which was Abrahams bosom. If you read the parable of the rich and poor man you shall see this. When Jesus died and commended his spiritmto the father he hadn't ascended above the heavens yet. He still had to go take the keys from satan and also minister to the people in hell for 3 days. If you remember the prophets before Jesus coming fortold of his coming. See God was God of Isreal and no other nation but the plan of God was to bring Jesus, which is God in his own right, and connect all nations to God. So evrrybody who died before Jesus coming was given a chance to leave with him when he left from hell and ascended to above the heavens.
 

iamsoandso

Senior Member
Oct 6, 2011
7,857
1,565
113
I am perplexed as to how John 10:30 shows Jesus was both God and Man at the same time. Tell me jamsoandso does the below text, given its context, show that we too are God in the flesh, since we are one with God the same way Jesus is one with the father?

(John 17:20-22) “...Neither pray I for these alone, but for them also who shall believe on me through their word. That they all may be one; as you, Father, are in me, and I in you, that they also may be one in us..."

Answer please.
"let us make man in our own image",,,,colossians 1;26,,,
 

NWL

Senior Member
Jul 24, 2012
433
9
18
He did precisely what he said he would do. He was in paradise with the thief immediately upon their deaths. (Matthew 12:40) and (John 20:17) have absolutely nothing to do with 23:43. The reason you cannot understand this is because of the reasons I stated earlier. Watchtower theology is faulty at its very core. The reason you do not understand the nature of God is because you operate from a number of false assumptions. Rather that challenge your own assumptions you attempt to manipulate the text. You are simply not being honest with the text.
Thank you for answering oldhermit. Now answer me this, what 'part' of Jesus was with the thief in heaven?

If your answer is his Spirit then please show me scriptural proof which says Jesus Spirit was in heaven after his death?

It's mind boggling that people don't understand simple definitions of words, such as resurrection, even the Bible says Jesus was to be resurrected on the third day trinitrians seem to think that means he was raised on the first day!? How I don't know. the same as his ascension, the Bible says Jesus ascended on the 40th day and yet you seem to think that somehow allows the teaching that he didn't ascend on the 40th but again on the first. Mind boggling! And yet JW's are the ones that twist scripture :s
 
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cjordan38

Guest
The scripture that should have been used to show that Jesus was God and Man was John 1:1-5. Now Jesus said he was the Light and no one gets to the father except through him. John 1:1-5 it states that the Lightt was the Word. Now if in the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God, aand the Light is the Word doesnt that make Jesus God in the flesh? Show me in the bible where it states that Jesus is not man and God.
 
Oct 14, 2013
4,750
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The man went to paradise which was Abrahams bosom. If you read the parable of the rich and poor man you shall see this. When Jesus died and commended his spiritmto the father he hadn't ascended above the heavens yet. He still had to go take the keys from satan and also minister to the people in hell for 3 days. If you remember the prophets before Jesus coming fortold of his coming. See God was God of Isreal and no other nation but the plan of God was to bring Jesus, which is God in his own right, and connect all nations to God. So evrrybody who died before Jesus coming was given a chance to leave with him when he left from hell and ascended to above the heavens.
One of the most misunderstood verses in the Bible is found in 1 Peter 3:18-20 which says

“For Christ also suffered once for sins, the just for the unjust, that He might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh but made alive by the Spirit, by whom also He went and preached to the spirits in prison, who formerly were disobedient, when once the Divine longsuffering waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was being prepared, in which a few, that is, eight souls, were saved through water.”

What does this verse mean? Did Jesus preach to spirits in hades or hell?
Or did He preach to fallen angels?
Or does this verse mean something completely different?


The following questions must be addresed

How did Jesus preach to these spirits in prison?
Who are these spirits in prison?
And when did He do this?
 
Oct 14, 2013
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Thank you for answering oldhermit. Now answer me this, what 'part' of Jesus was with the thief in heaven?

If your answer is his Spirit then please show me scriptural proof which says Jesus Spirit was in heaven after his death?

It's mind boggling that people don't understand simple definitions of words, such as resurrection, even the Bible says Jesus was to be resurrected on the third day trinitrians seem to think that means he was raised on the first day!? How I don't know. the same as his ascension, the Bible says Jesus ascended on the 40th day and yet you seem to think that somehow allows the teaching that he didn't ascend on the 40th but again on the first. Mind boggling! And yet JW's are the ones that twist scripture :s
What part of a man dies ?
 

NWL

Senior Member
Jul 24, 2012
433
9
18
"let us make man in our own image",,,,colossians 1;26,,,
Thanks for responding.

Logically and by your answer I don't believe that you think we are all Gods too just because we are his same image. So i'm guessing that your answer was a no we're not all Gods in regard to my question. If us being "one with the Father doesn't make us Godsin the flesh, then how can you claim that since Jesus is one with God that makes him God in the flesh? It makes no sense, your basing your reasoning on half truths.

Can't you see where your reasoning fails iamsoandso or do you want to carry on blindly with you false teachings?
 

oldhermit

Senior Member
Jul 28, 2012
9,143
612
113
70
Alabama
Thank you for answering oldhermit. Now answer me this, what 'part' of Jesus was with the thief in heaven?
If your answer is his Spirit then please show me scriptural proof which says Jesus Spirit was in heaven after his death?
You are making a false argument. You are trying to equate heaven with the word παραδείσῳ. These are not used synonymously in scripture. Paradise is the hadian or unseen realm where the souls of men await the resurrection. Heaven is the abode of God.
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
That is up for debate, that the word was God is merely a translators perceptive of the original language, there is many translations which render the verse otherwise for grammatical and contextual reasons. Plain and simply put I believe "the word was a thoes" for reasoning concerning context of the Bible in its entirety.
I could possibly believe you, But then I read on.

"and the word became flesh"

Scripture is a "logos" which main theme is jesus Which is why he is called the "logos"

jesus was not a man, whose main theme was scripture.
 
Oct 14, 2013
4,750
21
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The scripture that should have been used to show that Jesus was God and Man was John 1:1-5. Now Jesus said he was the Light and no one gets to the father except through him. John 1:1-5 it states that the Lightt was the Word. Now if in the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God, aand the Light is the Word doesnt that make Jesus God in the flesh? Show me in the bible where it states that Jesus is not man and God.
The bible says it is a mystery but JW dont get it dont they
[h=3]1 Timothy 3:16[/h]King James Version (KJV)

16 And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.

 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
Now you have a real problem. Paradise is the third heaven...

2Co 12:1 It is not expedient for me doubtless to glory. I will come to visions and revelations of the Lord.
2Co 12:2 I knew a man in Christ above fourteen years ago, (whether in the body, I cannot tell; or whether out of the body, I cannot tell: God knoweth;) such an one caught up to the third heaven.
2Co 12:3 And I knew such a man, (whether in the body, or out of the body, I cannot tell: God knoweth;)
2Co 12:4 How that he was caught up into paradise, and heard unspeakable words, which it is not lawful for a man to utter.

Yet over three days and nights later Christ says this...

Joh 20:17 Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.

He says He was not there yet.

He told the thief on that day that in the future, the thief would be with Him in paradise. Put the comma in the correct place.

lol. You forgot abraham's bosom.

Paradise and hades was separated by a large gulf before Jesus ascended to his father.

The payment had yet to be made for the sins of th epeople who resided there up to this time. jesus paid the price with his death. Thus allowing paradise to ascend into heaven.