The Letter to the Romans...
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He also is indicating and stressing importance to sow and reap from both the Greek and the nnn-Greek here, which I am considering to be the Greek and the Jew, only because of habitual reference to these as the nations and the Jews. Byi a big stretch it could mean the Greek and the non-Greek (Roman), but that is a distortion, it is certain.
This teaching has always left me with the impression it is also addressing those who, although the proof of being a creature in a creation is all around them, do not recognize there is a Creator of all that is, prefering to make a horizontal figure 8 calling it eternity rather than to admit they must consult the Most High Power in order to understand even the beginning of what is in what we presently call time, this age.
What you have shared here rings true. This particular teaching seems to contain much more than meets the eye. I believe this OP is a beautiful work inspired by our Lord, thank you my brother.
What you have shared here rings true. This particular teaching seems to contain much more than meets the eye. I believe this OP is a beautiful work inspired by our Lord, thank you my brother.
This teaching has always struck me soundly as being a stearn warning not to judge others by appearances for only our Father knows the hearts of men. I hear all of what you have said. I do not claim to have a perfectly lucid understanding of this in it entirety, but you, sir, are certainly shedding light in a wonderful way it seems, again, thank you for considering to shine your light for all to see.
Romans 2:25-29
For circumcision indeed is of value if you obey the law, but if you break the law, your circumcision becomes uncircumcision. So, if a man who is uncircumcised keeps the precepts of the law, will not his uncircumcision be regarded as circumcision? Then he who is physically uncircumcised but keeps the law will condemn you who have the written code and circumcision but break the law. For no one is a Jew who is merely one outwardly, nor is circumcision outward and physical. But a Jew is one inwardly, and circumcision is a matter of the heart, by the Spirit, not by the letter. His praise is not from man but from God.
What Paul's Saying...
(Following the context of the hypocrisy of “preaching God’s law but not doing it”) Paul uses the example of circumcision to explain. He says there’s nothing wrong with physical circumcision for anyone who obeys the law of God, but if they disobey God’s law it’s as if they were never circumcised. Likewise, any uncircumcised person who obeys God’s law would be counted as being circumcised...because it’s not about what you can show people (like physical circumcision) but more about an inside conversion. So a true “Jew” is anyone who’s had a true change of heart from the world’s way to obeying God’s law, it’s not about outward symbols.
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I truly appreciate everyone's comments. I'm going to log off for a while to get some sleep and will continue with the next portions of the letter later on, but just as a reminder if you disagree with an interpretation of a passage please feel free to give your alternative (in simple terms as best as possible). It's not only my hope to establish an unbroken chain of context but for all of us to see where our disagreements exist so we can - at least - speak to them specifically like in a new thread or something.
Here's a link to the OP if you'd like to know what I'm trying to do.
If any debates develop please transfer them to a new thread for me, as I want this to be primarily a read/study of Romans.
Thanks again!
Here's a link to the OP if you'd like to know what I'm trying to do.
If any debates develop please transfer them to a new thread for me, as I want this to be primarily a read/study of Romans.
Thanks again!
Romans 3:1-2
What Paul's saying...
But for anyone who thinks being a Jew or being circumcised isn’t valuable, Paul explains that both are very valuable, noting that the Jews were given all of the revelations of God.
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Then what advantage has the Jew? Or what is the value of circumcision? Much in every way. To begin with, the Jews were entrusted with the oracles of God.
What Paul's saying...
But for anyone who thinks being a Jew or being circumcised isn’t valuable, Paul explains that both are very valuable, noting that the Jews were given all of the revelations of God.
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If you’d like further elaboration of an interpretation, feel free to ask.
Romans 3:3-4
What if some were unfaithful? Does their faithlessness nullify the faithfulness of God? By no means! Let God be true though every one were a liar, as it is written,
“That you may be justified in your words,
and prevail when you are judged.”
“That you may be justified in your words,
and prevail when you are judged.”
What Paul's Saying...
(Continuing) and if the Jews are unfaithful (in context of the hypocrisy he’s been discussing unfaithful means “disobedient to God by breaking his law”), it doesn’t negate God’s faithfulness, as God’s word is shown as true.
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Romans 3:5-8
What Paul's Saying...
Paul then counters the opposite thought that some may reason with man’s logic: “well if our sins show how righteous and holy God is, then our sins benefit God and we shouldn't be punished.” Paul says they receive fair condemnation.
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But if our unrighteousness serves to show the righteousness of God, what shall we say? That God is unrighteous to inflict wrath on us? (I speak in a human way.) By no means! For then how could God judge the world? But if through my lie God's truth abounds to his glory, why am I still being condemned as a sinner? And why not do evil that good may come?—as some people slanderously charge us with saying. Their condemnation is just.
What Paul's Saying...
Paul then counters the opposite thought that some may reason with man’s logic: “well if our sins show how righteous and holy God is, then our sins benefit God and we shouldn't be punished.” Paul says they receive fair condemnation.
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Romans 3:9-18
What Paul's Saying...
Paul concludes the matter with the Jews by equalizing both Jews AND non-Jews as “all under sin”, so no one is righteous. All are in the same boat. Paul equates "being under sin" with "unrighteousness".
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What then? Are we Jews any better off? No, not at all. For we have already charged that all, both Jews and Greeks, are under sin, as it is written:
“None is righteous, no, not one;
no one understands;
no one seeks for God.
All have turned aside; together they have become worthless;
no one does good,
not even one.”
“Their throat is an open grave;
they use their tongues to deceive.”
“The venom of asps is under their lips.”
“Their mouth is full of curses and bitterness.”
“Their feet are swift to shed blood;
in their paths are ruin and misery,
and the way of peace they have not known.”
“There is no fear of God before their eyes.”
“None is righteous, no, not one;
no one understands;
no one seeks for God.
All have turned aside; together they have become worthless;
no one does good,
not even one.”
“Their throat is an open grave;
they use their tongues to deceive.”
“The venom of asps is under their lips.”
“Their mouth is full of curses and bitterness.”
“Their feet are swift to shed blood;
in their paths are ruin and misery,
and the way of peace they have not known.”
“There is no fear of God before their eyes.”
What Paul's Saying...
Paul concludes the matter with the Jews by equalizing both Jews AND non-Jews as “all under sin”, so no one is righteous. All are in the same boat. Paul equates "being under sin" with "unrighteousness".
If you agree with this interpretation, “like”.
If you disagree with this interpretation, post an alternative for others to agree with.
If you’d like further elaboration of an interpretation, feel free to ask.
Romans 3:19-20
What Paul's Saying...
(Following the previous point) The context is “how EVERYONE is under sin”, so here Paul explains how the law makes this possible. So the subject of this passage is “The Law and how *IT* specifically functions”; how it works to reveal unrighteousness (i.e. sin) in the world. In Context, this passage has nothing to do with the works of men, positively or negatively. The subject of this thought is The Law's works...not men's works.
[Letting the bible interpret itself; the same phrase "work of the law" is first used in Romans 2:14-16 and shows that The Law itself has a "work"; a job to perform. Other translations of the same phrase say "the requirements of the law" (the law's requirements), and "the deeds of the law" (the law's deeds).]
Paul says “The Law Speaks” (an action)...and no one is justified because of what The Law *says* (an action). The Law has a necessary job to do: to show what is a sin (and why we are ALL unrighteous). So “the works of the law” [i.e. "The Law's works" or "The Law's requirements" or "The Law’s actions"] hold the world accountable to a Just God.
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Now we know that whatever the law says it speaks to those who are under the law, so that every mouth may be stopped, and the whole world may be held accountable to God. For by works of the law no human being will be justified in his sight, since through the law comes knowledge of sin.
What Paul's Saying...
(Following the previous point) The context is “how EVERYONE is under sin”, so here Paul explains how the law makes this possible. So the subject of this passage is “The Law and how *IT* specifically functions”; how it works to reveal unrighteousness (i.e. sin) in the world. In Context, this passage has nothing to do with the works of men, positively or negatively. The subject of this thought is The Law's works...not men's works.
[Letting the bible interpret itself; the same phrase "work of the law" is first used in Romans 2:14-16 and shows that The Law itself has a "work"; a job to perform. Other translations of the same phrase say "the requirements of the law" (the law's requirements), and "the deeds of the law" (the law's deeds).]
Paul says “The Law Speaks” (an action)...and no one is justified because of what The Law *says* (an action). The Law has a necessary job to do: to show what is a sin (and why we are ALL unrighteous). So “the works of the law” [i.e. "The Law's works" or "The Law's requirements" or "The Law’s actions"] hold the world accountable to a Just God.
If you agree with this interpretation, “like”.
If you disagree with this interpretation, post an alternative for others to agree with.
If you’d like further elaboration of an interpretation, feel free to ask.
Romans 3:21-26
But now the righteousness of God has been manifested apart from the law, although the Law and the Prophets bear witness to it - the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all who believe. For there is no distinction: for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, and are justified by his grace as a gift, through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus, whom God put forward as a propitiation by his blood, to be received by faith. This was to show God's righteousness, because in his divine forbearance he had passed over former sins. It was to show his righteousness at the present time, so that he might be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus.
What Paul's Saying...
(Contrasting the previous point) On the other hand, Paul says "righteousness" is manifested separately through faith in Christ, available to all. That “faith” gives us his grace as a gift (post #2: grace is the power to be obedient to God...a power that is Christ’s alone) (post #5: Christ’s grace is the power of God for salvation) (post #34 & #35: to be unrighteous = to sin). So in context, Christ’s grace alone gives the power not to sin (i.e. to be righteous; to be obedient to God’s law).
This gift of grace (post #2) was purchased by Christ’s blood, and showed God’s willingness to forget *PAST* sins. And with this grace we can now be justified. So The Law shows God is Just, while Grace shows God is the Justifier. Without BOTH existing together (performing their unique "works"), God could not display his FULL righteousness to the world.
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Romans 3:27-30
Then what becomes of our boasting? It is excluded. By what kind of law? By a law of works? No, but by the law of faith. For we hold that one is justified by faith apart from works of the law. Or is God the God of Jews only? Is he not the God of Gentiles also? Yes, of Gentiles also, since God is one—who will justify the circumcised by faith and the uncircumcised through faith.
What Paul's Saying...
Following the context; because it’s not by our own power that we can be obedient to God (but by Christ’s power/grace), and without that power/grace we are found unrighteous by God’s Just Law, we’re in no position to boast. And (in context to the “boasting”) Paul says any boasting is tossed out by a law of faith, not "a law of works" [a shot at his fellow Jews, and not to be confused with "works of the law" (post #35)] or any other “law”, because (post #36) our justification comes by faith, which is separate from the "works of the law" [i.e. "The Law’s actions" or "The Law's Job"] (post #35).
This shows Yah is God and Justifier of all, both of the circumcised and uncircumcised.
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I really like the thought below that you gave, as I have always taught that it is Christ through us that completes the works of righteousness and because of salvation we can now do what we are called to do while having the ability to be obedient unto the God of Heaven.
So grace is defined as the power to be obedient...a power that is Christ’s alone.
So grace is defined as the power to be obedient...a power that is Christ’s alone.
Romans 3:31
Do we then overthrow the law by this faith? By no means! On the contrary, we uphold the law.
What Paul's Saying...
Paul says because it’s faith that justifies us some may argue to do away with The Law, but Paul emphatically denounces such an idea. (In context to what Paul says in Post #9, #10, & #12) Paul says we maintain The Law (because as he said earlier, it’s “obeying the law” that makes us righteous)...we simply can’t do that without Christ’s grace, which alone comes from having faith in him.
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Ephesians 2:8 - Salvation is by Grace through faith in Christ
1. post #37: Faith in Christ...
2. Christ’s gift of Grace...
3. Post #2: Grace is the Christ's power to be obedient to God...
4. Post #36: Obedience to God's Law is righteousness...
5. Post #10: As all will be judged based on their works
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The law of God is the “lock”...Christ’s grace is the “key”...and our faith is how we receive that key. And when we use it we are freed from our bondage to sin and finally able to be obedient to God.
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