'Study to shew thyself approved unto God,
a workman that needeth not to be ashamed,
rightly dividing the word of truth.'
(2Tim.2:15)
Hello there,
It is God's approval that we are to seek in regard to our treatment of His Word, isn't it? and not the approval of man.
The word 'study' has the meaning of 'endeavouring', and the illustration is of a 'workman', so that it is not for the studious mind only, but for the man and woman who would seek to walk worthy of the Lord, in a manner in keeping with His known will.
Yet, that differs according to the dispensation within which we live: which can be illustrated by the very important fact, that we need to take care not to take what belongs to a past dispensation and interpret (and seek to apply it) within the present dispensation, for in doing so we can place ourselves under law, to which we died, in Christ, and from which Christ has made us free; the law having no power over a man that has died.
To those who lived under the law, it could rightly and truly be said:
"It shall be our righteousness,
if we observe to do all these commandment
before the Lord our God,
as He hath commanded us"
(Deut 6:25)
But to those who live in this present dispensation of grace, it is as truly declared,
"By the deeds of the law
there shall no flesh be justified in His sight.'
(Rom. 3:20)
(see also Gal 2:16; 3:11)
But this is the very opposite of Deut 6:25!
* What then are we to say, or to do?
Which of these two statements is true? and which is false?
The answer is, that neither is false. But both are true if we rightly divide the Word of truth as to it's dispensational truth and teaching.
Deuteronomy 6:25 was true, then 'concerning' Israel; and is in harmony with the covenant of works under which Israel had placed itself. But Rom. 3:20 and Gal 2:16 are true now 'concerning' all three, Jew, Gentile and the Church of God. The statement in these two passages concerning all 'flesh' was made after Israel had broken that covenant (Heb. 10:20); and after Christ had introduced the unconditional 'everlasting covenant' (Heb.13:20) of grace, into which He entered for His people 'before the foundation of the world' (Eph. 1:3,4).
These are two statements exactly opposite to each other. Is it then the fact that the one is true and the other false? No! Both are true; absolutely true. And this will be seen at once if we appropriate each to, and interpret each of, the dispensation to which it properly belongs. The former is not true now in this present dispensation. it was true of those under the Law. The latter is as true now of those who are under Grace.
Yet, unfortunately many still apply Deuteronomy 6:25 to themselves now, and in doing so put themselves under law, and deny their standing which God has given them in Christ; and so they fail to enjoy that liberty wherewith Christ hath made His people free (Gal. 5:1).
In Christ Jesus
Chris
a workman that needeth not to be ashamed,
rightly dividing the word of truth.'
(2Tim.2:15)
Hello there,
It is God's approval that we are to seek in regard to our treatment of His Word, isn't it? and not the approval of man.
The word 'study' has the meaning of 'endeavouring', and the illustration is of a 'workman', so that it is not for the studious mind only, but for the man and woman who would seek to walk worthy of the Lord, in a manner in keeping with His known will.
Yet, that differs according to the dispensation within which we live: which can be illustrated by the very important fact, that we need to take care not to take what belongs to a past dispensation and interpret (and seek to apply it) within the present dispensation, for in doing so we can place ourselves under law, to which we died, in Christ, and from which Christ has made us free; the law having no power over a man that has died.
To those who lived under the law, it could rightly and truly be said:
"It shall be our righteousness,
if we observe to do all these commandment
before the Lord our God,
as He hath commanded us"
(Deut 6:25)
But to those who live in this present dispensation of grace, it is as truly declared,
"By the deeds of the law
there shall no flesh be justified in His sight.'
(Rom. 3:20)
(see also Gal 2:16; 3:11)
But this is the very opposite of Deut 6:25!
* What then are we to say, or to do?
Which of these two statements is true? and which is false?
The answer is, that neither is false. But both are true if we rightly divide the Word of truth as to it's dispensational truth and teaching.
Deuteronomy 6:25 was true, then 'concerning' Israel; and is in harmony with the covenant of works under which Israel had placed itself. But Rom. 3:20 and Gal 2:16 are true now 'concerning' all three, Jew, Gentile and the Church of God. The statement in these two passages concerning all 'flesh' was made after Israel had broken that covenant (Heb. 10:20); and after Christ had introduced the unconditional 'everlasting covenant' (Heb.13:20) of grace, into which He entered for His people 'before the foundation of the world' (Eph. 1:3,4).
These are two statements exactly opposite to each other. Is it then the fact that the one is true and the other false? No! Both are true; absolutely true. And this will be seen at once if we appropriate each to, and interpret each of, the dispensation to which it properly belongs. The former is not true now in this present dispensation. it was true of those under the Law. The latter is as true now of those who are under Grace.
Yet, unfortunately many still apply Deuteronomy 6:25 to themselves now, and in doing so put themselves under law, and deny their standing which God has given them in Christ; and so they fail to enjoy that liberty wherewith Christ hath made His people free (Gal. 5:1).
In Christ Jesus
Chris
