Baptism Essential to Salvation

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mailmandan

Senior Member
Apr 7, 2014
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No friend common sense will tell you those who believe and is baptised means being baptised is a sign of believing but he that believeth not, will not show the sign because he does not believe. How would you insert baptised into that sentence?..."but he that believeth not shall be damned "
Common sense or faulty human logic? Common sense and Biblical hermeneutics will tell you that the omission of baptized with "believeth not" shows that Jesus does not make baptism essential to salvation. Condemnation rests on unbelief, not on baptism. So salvation rests on belief, which is perfect harmony with what Jesus said in John 3:15,16,18; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26. Baptism is a sign that we believe, yet there are many people who don't truly believe yet get water baptized anyway. These people may believe "mental assent" in the existence and historical facts about Christ, then get water baptized, trusting in it to save them, but they don't believe/trust exclusively in Christ for salvation. I use to be one of those people.

In Mark 16:16, if we look at this verse closely, we see that it is composed of two basic statements. 1—He who believes and is baptized will be saved. 2—He who does not believe will be condemned. Clearly, the determining factor regarding whether one is saved or condemned is whether or not he believes. In interpreting this passage correctly, it is important to realize that while it tells us something about believers who have been baptized (they will be saved), it does not say anything about believers who have not been baptized. In order for this verse to teach that baptism is necessary for salvation, a third statement would have had to be included, that statement being: “He who believes and is not baptized will be condemned” or “He who is not baptized will be condemned.” But, of course, neither of these statements is found in the verse.

"He who believes and is baptized shall be saved" is like saying "he that takes his medication and washes it down with water shall be made well." Of course it's not washing the medication down with water that makes you well, it's the medication, but it logically follows that we wash it down with water, but if you take it dry, you will still be made well because of the medication. The same with baptism. It logically follows that we get baptized after we believe, but if you are on your death bed and cannot get baptized before you die (like the thief on the cross), you will still be saved because you BELIEVE (Acts 10:43; 13:30; 16:31) which is in harmony with Mark 16:16(b)...but he that BELIEVES NOT shall be damned. Certainly, water baptism is an important act of obedience. Any one professing to believe in Jesus and yet refusing to be baptized is of questionable sincerity. Faith and the act of water baptism are closely linked in the NT. Indeed, it is unthinkable that anyone would believe in Jesus and refuse to be water baptized. I can't think of one Christian I know who believes in Christ (trusts in Him for salvation), yet has refused to be water baptized. Notice, however, those who Jesus said would be condemned: "whoever does not believe." No mention was made of not being baptized. The emphasis is on unbelief, not baptism. Show me where the Bible says whoever is NOT water baptized will NOT be saved.

*You still did not answer my question: If water baptism is absolutely required for salvation, then why did Jesus not mention it in the following verses? (3:15,16,18; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26). What is the ONE requirement that Jesus mentions 9 different times in each of these complete statements? BELIEVES. *What happened to baptism? *Hermeneutics.
 

mailmandan

Senior Member
Apr 7, 2014
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Can you see a difference here....." If God says whoever believes in Him will receive remission of sins (Acts 10:43) "
Whoever believes in Him will receive remission of sins is not the same thing as whoever gets water baptized will receive remission of sins. These Gentiles believed in the Lord Jesus Christ, received the Holy Spirit, spoke in tongues and magnified God BEFORE water baptism, (Acts 10:43-47) so water baptism follows believing in Him and receiving remission of sins (vs. 48).

Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost. now you will go for a *Hermeneutics.* to change the word again...God bless
In Acts 11:17, Peter said - If therefore God gave them the same gift (Holy Spirit) as He gave us when we believed on the Lord Jesus Christ, who was I that I could withstand God?" In verse 18, Peter refers to this as ..repentance unto life. When did they believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and receive the Holy Spirit? BEFORE water baptism (Acts 10:43-47). Acts 16:31 says - Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and you will be saved. 10:45 says - the gift of the Holy Spirit had been poured out on the Gentiles also (read my lips) BEFORE water baptism. Now harmonize that with Acts 2:38. I didn't change the word of God. Hermeneutics is about harmonizing scripture with scripture and not about forcing the rest of scripture to "conform" to your biased interpretation of a particular pet verse, as you have demonstrated.
 

mailmandan

Senior Member
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You are trying to explain God in Man's understanding
That statement is the epitome of irony. See 1 Corinthians 2:11-14.

you place *Hermeneutics and
AT Robertson over the anointing. But the anointing which ye have received of him abideth in you, and ye need not that any man teach you: but as the same anointing teacheth you of all things, and is truth, and is no lie, and even as it hath taught you, ye shall abide in him.
You place your biased theology over the anointing. By writing this letter, John is obviously teaching them. He means, rather, that they have no need for any instruction from man that diverges from the truth. 1 Corinthians 12:28 - And God has appointed these in the church: first apostles, second prophets, third teachers, after that miracles, then gifts of healings, helps, administrations, varieties of tongues. The anointing does not negate teachers in the church. If you would have harmonized scripture with scripture then you would have figured that out. Those who have received the anointing do not pervert the gospel.
 
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Common sense or faulty human logic? Common sense and Biblical hermeneutics will tell you that the omission of baptized with "believeth not" shows that Jesus does not make baptism essential to salvation. Condemnation rests on unbelief, not on baptism. So salvation rests on belief, which is perfect harmony with what Jesus said in John 3:15,16,18; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26. Baptism is a sign that we believe, yet there are many people who don't truly believe yet get water baptized anyway. These people may believe "mental assent" in the existence and historical facts about Christ, then get water baptized, trusting in it to save them, but they don't believe/trust exclusively in Christ for salvation. I use to be one of those people.
And it is your duty to judge who believes and who truly believes? If Baptism is a sign that we believe . Then if one says he believe and is not baptised is it not a sign that he does not truly believe? And since we are commanded to be baptised, If you say one can believe and not be baptised isn't that an act of disobedience?

In Mark 16:16, if we look at this verse closely, we see that it is composed of two basic statements. 1—He who believes and is baptized will be saved. 2—He who does not believe will be condemned. Clearly, the determining factor regarding whether one is saved or condemned is whether or not he believes. In interpreting this passage correctly, it is important to realize that while it tells us something about believers who have been baptized (they will be saved), it does not say anything about believers who have not been baptized. In order for this verse to teach that baptism is necessary for salvation, a third statement would have had to be included, that statement being: “He who believes and is not baptized will be condemned” or “He who is not baptized will be condemned.” But, of course, neither of these statements is found in the verse.
You cannot apply the action to show belief to one who does not believe. If he believes and is baptised and will be saved....Then the opposite is applied if he does not believe, he does not believe so he will not be baptised therefore he will be (not saved)condemned. Why on earth will he be baptised if he does not believe?
"He who believes and is baptized shall be saved" is like saying "he that takes his medication and washes it down with water shall be made well." Of course it's not washing the medication down with water that makes you well, it's the medication, but it logically follows that we wash it down with water, but if you take it dry, you will still be made well because of the medication. The same with baptism. It logically follows that we get baptized after we believe, but if you are on your death bed and cannot get baptized before you die (like the thief on the cross), you will still be saved because you BELIEVE (Acts 10:43; 13:30; 16:31) which is in harmony with Mark 16:16(b)...but he that BELIEVES NOT shall be damned. Certainly, water baptism is an important act of obedience. Any one professing to believe in Jesus and yet refusing to be baptized is of questionable sincerity. Faith and the act of water baptism are closely linked in the NT. Indeed, it is unthinkable that anyone would believe in Jesus and refuse to be water baptized. I can't think of one Christian I know who believes in Christ (trusts in Him for salvation), yet has refused to be water baptized. Notice, however, those who Jesus said would be condemned: "whoever does not believe." No mention was made of not being baptized. The emphasis is on unbelief, not baptism. Show me where the Bible says whoever is NOT water baptized will NOT be saved.
What you are saying is " He who believes and is not baptized shall be saved" That is what you have done, by your reasoning you have change the word to suit yourself.
*You still did not answer my question: If water baptism is absolutely required for salvation, then why did Jesus not mention it in the following verses? (3:15,16,18; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26). What is the ONE requirement that Jesus mentions 9 different times in each of these complete statements? BELIEVES. *What happened to baptism? *Hermeneutics.
What happen to baptism ? you have just made it null and void.

If you believe you will be baptised. You believe and was baptised. If you did not believe you would not have been baptised. Unbelievers don't get baptised. Unbelievers teach not to be baptised. Unbelievers teach baptism is is not for the remission of sins. Unbelievers teach if you believe and is not baptised you will be saved.
 
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Whoever believes in Him will receive remission of sins is not the same thing as whoever gets water baptized will receive remission of sins. These Gentiles believed in the Lord Jesus Christ, received the Holy Spirit, spoke in tongues and magnified God BEFORE water baptism, (Acts 10:43-47) so water baptism follows believing in Him and receiving remission of sins (vs. 48).



In Acts 11:17, Peter said - If therefore God gave them the same gift (Holy Spirit) as He gave us when we believed on the Lord Jesus Christ, who was I that I could withstand God?" In verse 18, Peter refers to this as ..repentance unto life. When did they believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and receive the Holy Spirit? BEFORE water baptism (Acts 10:43-47). Acts 16:31 says - Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and you will be saved. 10:45 says - the gift of the Holy Spirit had been poured out on the Gentiles also (read my lips) BEFORE water baptism. Now harmonize that with Acts 2:38. I didn't change the word of God. Hermeneutics is about harmonizing scripture with scripture and not about forcing the rest of scripture to "conform" to your biased interpretation of a particular pet verse, as you have demonstrated.
Every time you say" BEFORE water baptism " say I wonder why they must still be water baptised after they have received the Holy Ghost? It has nothing to do with remission of sins, it has nothing to do with salvation, it is not in harmony with the word. It you don't do it you will be saved anyway as long as you believe. You know what lets just remove it from the great commission. All it does is get you wet.....
 

penknight

Senior Member
Jan 6, 2014
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1 Corinthians 12:13
For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we bebond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit.
 
Mar 12, 2014
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1 Corinthians 12:13
For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we bebond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit.

Jn 3:5-------------spirit+++++++++++water>>>>>>>>>in the kingdom
1Cr 12:13---------spirit++++++++++baptized>>>>>>>>in the body

Both verses are "born again" verses. "In the kingdom" is equivalent to "into the body" both represent salvation. Since there is just one way to be saved, no alternatives, then both verses must express the same idea. Meaning "spirit" is equivalent to "spirit". "Born of water" is equivalent to "baptized". So being born of water is a reference to water baptism.
 
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Matthew 3:11 “I baptize you with water for repentance. But after me comes one who is more powerful than I, whose sandals I am not worthy to carry. He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit and fire.

This is repentance

Luke 15:18 I will set out and go back to my father and say to him: Father, I have sinned against heaven and against you. 19 I am no longer worthy to be called your son; make me like one of your hired servants.’

Baptism

Luke 15:22 “But the father said to his servants, ‘Quick! Bring the best robe and put it on him. Put a ring on his finger and sandals on his feet. 23 Bring the fattened calf and kill it. Let’s have a feast and celebrate. 24 For this son of mine was dead and is alive again; he was lost and is found.’ So they began to celebrate.


The Holy spirit is the one that Jesus has given to them to help get rid of the dirt. John had said that he will Baptize those with water, but he did not know the name of the one that will be Baptizing them afterward. So John Baptized them in his name. Baptism was a sign showing that a person has been clean. John had wore clothing that was made from camel's hair which they wore clothing of cheap material like goat hair and or any hair from an animal that showing that they has repented. By doing this it shows that they are dirty and worthless to be in fine clothing; and so Baptism is showing that they has been clean from their sins and they can wear fine robes and a signet ring on their fingers ( The ring which show that they have all the authority that the father has).
 
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No, No, No not again. Mat 28 is not water baptism. Water is not essential to salvation. Holy Spirit baptism is essential to salvation. Mat 28 is immersion in doctrine not water nor Holy Spirit. You make disciples by teaching them doctrine not by baptism.

So many water baptism threads and so much wrong information.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
You teach men what Christ commanded you to do .You don't baptise them with doctrine where does Christ teach you to baptise men in doctrine?. You baptise men in water.

Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you always, even unto the end of the world. Amen.

He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.
Its OK you may want find a way to make the word mean something else...someone did it elsewhere.

Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.

Christ came through the water (when he was baptised he received the Holy Spirit) That is the pattern he left for us but who am I to tell all the scholars and intellectual on CC... are we not taught baptism for the remission of sins...?
Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.

John preached baptism for the remission of sin. Was John baptism of God or of man?
 
U

Ukorin

Guest
The same problem is occurring here as occurs on every topic. The problem is focus.
Is it good to give every dime and possession to the needy? Yes
Is it necessary for salvation? No.
By saying that it is not necessary, am I dissuading people from doing it? In no way. The action is still encouraged.

By saying that water baptism is not involved in the salvation process, I am not dissuading anyone from being baptized. It is still encouraged.

The problem comes when we put too much focus on these good things, and lift them up higher than they ought to be.

Encourage new believers to be baptized in water. There is no need to go any further.
 

mailmandan

Senior Member
Apr 7, 2014
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And it is your duty to judge who believes and who truly believes?
God judges the heart and knows who truly believes and who does not. I'm just pointing out that not everyone is a genuine believer, even though they think they are. I thought that I was a believer many years ago, was water baptized, but later came to realize that my belief fell short of genuine or consummated belief/faith in Christ resulting in salvation. I've heard several testimonies from others who have said the same thing. I know former Mormons who were water baptized in the LDS church but didn't even believe that Jesus is God at that time, but later came to believe that Jesus is God, received Him through faith, then afterward received water baptism as a genuine believer. Do you believe that it does not really matter what the content of one's belief/faith is? As long as one believes "something" about Jesus or believes that there is one God (James 2:19), that constitutes a "believer" to you?

You cannot apply the action to show belief to one who does not believe.
But not everyone who gets water baptized truly believes, as I already explained to you. Been there, done that and know several others who have been there, done that.

If he believes and is baptised and will be saved....Then the opposite is applied if he does not believe, he does not believe so he will not be baptised therefore he will be (not saved) condemned.
Mark 16:16(b) said nothing about those who are not baptized will be condemned. I already explained to you that there are people who get water baptized but don't truly believe. When I was water baptized prior to my conversion, I believed in the existence of Christ, I believed that He was the Son of God and I believed that His death, burial and resurrection "happened" but I was not believing/trusting in Him as the all sufficient means of my salvation at that time, so my belief/faith fell short of genuine or consummated belief/faith in Christ resulting in salvation.

Why on earth will he be baptised if he does not believe?
Because many people see baptism as the means of their salvation and some simply see it as the way to join their particular church, even though they don't truly believe/trust in Christ as the all sufficient means of their salvation, although they may believe "something" about Christ, they see that as good enough to be considered a believer who is now qualified to be water baptized. Some people even reject the deity of Christ yet still consider themselves "believers" and get water baptized anyway (as I already explained) because that's what they are trusting in for salvation, along with other works.

If Baptism is a sign that we believe. Then if one says he believes and is not baptised is it not a sign that he does not truly believe?
If someone claims to believe yet refuses to be water baptized, I would seriously doubt that they truly believe. I'm yet to meet a genuine believer who refuses to be water baptized. I was water baptized after I received Christ through faith and so was my wife and son and every Christian that I know. Refusing to get water baptized would be like reciting your vows at your wedding and then refusing to exchange rings and put them on your fingers during the ceremony. Makes no sense!

And since we are commanded to be baptised, If you say one can believe and not be baptised isn't that an act of disobedience?
Refusing to get water baptized would be an act of disobedience but what genuine believer would refuse to be water baptized? What about one who truly believes but is om their death bed, on the battle field when they receive Christ through faith but are unable to get water baptized before they die? Will they be saved or are they out of luck because no water is available? If they are unable to get water baptized before they die, does that mean they did not believe?

What happen to baptism? you have just made it null and void.
Made it null and void of what? I'm just simply pointing out that if water baptism is absolutely required for salvation, then why did Jesus not mention it in the following verses? (3:15,16,18; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26). Believing and getting baptized afterwards are obviously two distinct things and Jesus clearly connects believing with receiving eternal life nine different times here, so why would I add the word baptism to those verses if Jesus did not?

If you believe you will be baptised.
Sure, unless you are unable to.

You believe and was baptised.
I certainly was. I couldn't wait to get water baptized. I received Christ through faith late on a Saturday night and was water baptized on Sunday morning. Does that mean between Saturday night and Sunday morning that I was still lost in my sins? I know without a doubt that I had been born again and received the Holy Spirit that night.

If you did not believe you would not have been baptised.
Well, prior to receiving Christ through faith, I was water baptized in a church that taught salvation by works, but was water baptized again after my conversion. Again, at that time, I believed in the existence and historical facts about Christ but I did not believe/trust in Him as the all sufficient means of my salvation. I believed in works salvation. I was not a believer, but got water baptized anyway and so have many others. I hope that someday you will understand exactly what I'm talking about.

Unbelievers don't get baptised.
Atheists are not the only unbelievers. If our belief falls short of trusting exclusively in Christ for salvation, then we are unbelievers, even though we may believe "something" about Christ.

Unbelievers teach not to be baptised.
Unbelievers also teach believe in your baptism and not exclusively in Christ for salvation.

Unbelievers teach baptism is is not for the remission of sins.
Unbelievers teach that believing in Him to receive remission of sins (Acts 10:43) is not good enough and misunderstand that water baptism is in regards to, not in order to obtain, the remission of sins that is received upon repentance/faith (Acts 3:19; 11:17,18; Romans 3:24-26).

Unbelievers teach if you believe and is not baptised you will be saved.
Unbelievers teach that it's the lack of being baptized that causes condemnation regardless of what you believe.
 

mailmandan

Senior Member
Apr 7, 2014
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Every time you say" BEFORE water baptism" say I wonder why they must still be water baptised after they have received the Holy Ghost?
So you admit they received the Holy Spirit BEFORE water baptism. Why would you wonder why they were still commanded to be water baptized after they received the Holy Spirit? Your logic seems to be, "if water baptism does not save you, then why do it at all?" Do you have this same logic about taking the Lord's Supper? If taking the Lord's Supper is not the means of your salvation, does that make it meaningless? What does the Bible say about those who have received the Holy Spirit? Are they still lost? Does the Holy Spirit indwell lost unbelievers? The conversion of these Gentiles clearly shows that water baptism is not necessary for salvation. Before they were water baptized, they clearly had already "received" the Holy Spirit (Acts 10:45,47). In view of this, there are three passages that demonstrate they were already saved before water baptism. They are Romans 8:9; Galatians 4:6 and 1 John 4:13.

1. Romans 8:9 - But you are not in the flesh but in the Spirit, if indeed the Spirit of God dwells in you. Now if anyone does not have the Spirit of Christ, he is not His. If one has the Holy Spirit they "belong" to Christ. To belong to Christ does not describe the condition of a lost unbeliever but a saved believer - such was the case of these Gentiles before they were water baptized.

2. Galatians 4:6 - And because you are sons, God has sent forth the Spirit of His Son into your hearts, crying out, "Abba, Father!" This would only describe a condition of one who is a saved believer, not a lost unbeliever. Such was the case of these Gentiles before they were water baptized.

3. 1 John 4:13 - By this we know that we abide in Him, and He in us, because He has given us of His Spirit. Because they had the Holy Spirit, these Gentiles abided in God and God abided in him. To abide in God and to have God abide in you does not describe the condition of a lost unbeliever but a saved believer - such was the case of these Gentiles before they were water baptized.

It has nothing to do with remission of sins, it has nothing to do with salvation, it is not in harmony with the word. It you don't do it you will be saved anyway as long as you believe. You know what lets just remove it from the great commission. All it does is get you wet.....
Water baptism is done "in regards to" the remission of sins that is received upon repentance/believing in Him (Matthew 3:11; Mark 1:4; Acts 2:38; 3:19; 10:43; 11:17,18). The remission of sins/salvation is signified, but not procured in water baptism. That's "something" to do with the remission of sins/salvation. If the Bible says BELIEVE and be saved over and over again (John 3:15,16,18,36; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26; Acts 10:43; 13:39; 16:31; Romans 1:16; 3:22-28; 4:5; 10:4; 1 Corinthians 1:21 etc..) then why doubt the Bible or try to add something (works) to believing in Him? Christ is the Object of our belief/faith in receiving salvation. Is He the all sufficient means of our salvation Who we can fully trust in to save us? Or is He an insufficient Savior in which we need to add our works to His finished work of redemption in order to help Him save us?
 
L

lauren85

Guest
I can think of two verses to consider;


1Pe 3:21; "Baptism doth also now save us."


Mark 16:16; "He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved."


My vote's for YES. It IS necessary for salvation.
 
Mar 12, 2014
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The same problem is occurring here as occurs on every topic. The problem is focus.
Is it good to give every dime and possession to the needy? Yes
Is it necessary for salvation? No.
By saying that it is not necessary, am I dissuading people from doing it? In no way. The action is still encouraged.

By saying that water baptism is not involved in the salvation process, I am not dissuading anyone from being baptized. It is still encouraged.

The problem comes when we put too much focus on these good things, and lift them up higher than they ought to be.

Encourage new believers to be baptized in water. There is no need to go any further.
I am perplexed how one's bias can say baptism is not necessary to being saved when the bible teaches:

1) water baptism is commanded. the command if for no other reason makes it necessary for disobeying God's commands is sin/unrighteouness.

2) verses as Mk 16;16 and Acts 2:38 put baptism BEFORE salvation not AFTER. One must go through erroneous grammatical gymnastics to rewrite, rearrange the order of these verses.

3) water baptism is: how one gets into Christ, Gal 3:27; accesses the blood of Christ to wash away sins; Rom 6:3,4 the point God remits/cuts away the body of sin Act 2:38, Col 2:12-14.

If water baptism is not necessary to salvation then obeying God's commands, being in Christ, the blood of Christ and remission of sins are not necessary to salvation either.
 
Mar 28, 2014
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Common sense or faulty human logic? Common sense and Biblical hermeneutics will tell you that the omission of baptized with "believeth not" shows that Jesus does not make baptism essential to salvation. Condemnation rests on unbelief, not on baptism. So salvation rests on belief, which is perfect harmony with what Jesus said in John 3:15,16,18; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26. Baptism is a sign that we believe, yet there are many people who don't truly believe yet get water baptized anyway. These people may believe "mental assent" in the existence and historical facts about Christ, then get water baptized, trusting in it to save them, but they don't believe/trust exclusively in Christ for salvation. I use to be one of those people.

In Mark 16:16, if we look at this verse closely, we see that it is composed of two basic statements. 1—He who believes and is baptized will be saved. 2—He who does not believe will be condemned. Clearly, the determining factor regarding whether one is saved or condemned is whether or not he believes. In interpreting this passage correctly, it is important to realize that while it tells us something about believers who have been baptized (they will be saved), it does not say anything about believers who have not been baptized. In order for this verse to teach that baptism is necessary for salvation, a third statement would have had to be included, that statement being: “He who believes and is not baptized will be condemned” or “He who is not baptized will be condemned.” But, of course, neither of these statements is found in the verse.

"He who believes and is baptized shall be saved" is like saying "he that takes his medication and washes it down with water shall be made well." Of course it's not washing the medication down with water that makes you well, it's the medication, but it logically follows that we wash it down with water, but if you take it dry, you will still be made well because of the medication. The same with baptism. It logically follows that we get baptized after we believe, but if you are on your death bed and cannot get baptized before you die (like the thief on the cross), you will still be saved because you BELIEVE (Acts 10:43; 13:30; 16:31) which is in harmony with Mark 16:16(b)...but he that BELIEVES NOT shall be damned. Certainly, water baptism is an important act of obedience. Any one professing to believe in Jesus and yet refusing to be baptized is of questionable sincerity. Faith and the act of water baptism are closely linked in the NT. Indeed, it is unthinkable that anyone would believe in Jesus and refuse to be water baptized. I can't think of one Christian I know who believes in Christ (trusts in Him for salvation), yet has refused to be water baptized. Notice, however, those who Jesus said would be condemned: "whoever does not believe." No mention was made of not being baptized. The emphasis is on unbelief, not baptism. Show me where the Bible says whoever is NOT water baptized will NOT be saved.

*You still did not answer my question: If water baptism is absolutely required for salvation, then why did Jesus not mention it in the following verses? (3:15,16,18; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26). What is the ONE requirement that Jesus mentions 9 different times in each of these complete statements? BELIEVES. *What happened to baptism? *Hermeneutics.
Let me ask you this. Was the baptism of John from God or from man? That is the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins. Now Jesus who had no sin was baptised by John the same baptism of repentance for the remission of sins. After he was baptised by John the Holy Spirit came upon him. Whose pattern are we following? John said no Lord I cannot baptise you, You should baptise me but Jesus was obedient to the Father and was baptised by John. That is the way we are planted in the likeness of his death(water baptism) and reborn (born again of water) and we shall receive the gift of the holy ghost (born of the spirit). Men don't want to teach this because it is against their doctrine. Will you believe God or man?
[SUP]5 [/SUP]Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.

Some have this ridiculous notion that born of water means when a mother "water breaks". But that pertains to your fleshly birth and has nothing to do with your new birth.
[SUP]6 [/SUP]That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.
 
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So you admit they received the Holy Spirit BEFORE water baptism. Why would you wonder why they were still commanded to be water baptized after they received the Holy Spirit? Your logic seems to be, "if water baptism does not save you, then why do it at all?" Do you have this same logic about taking the Lord's Supper? If taking the Lord's Supper is not the means of your salvation, does that make it meaningless? What does the Bible say about those who have received the Holy Spirit? Are they still lost? Does the Holy Spirit indwell lost unbelievers? The conversion of these Gentiles clearly shows that water baptism is not necessary for salvation. Before they were water baptized, they clearly had already "received" the Holy Spirit (Acts 10:45,47). In view of this, there are three passages that demonstrate they were already saved before water baptism. They are Romans 8:9; Galatians 4:6 and 1 John 4:13.
That is the way you see it because of your doctrine...The conversion of these show...For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek.


Water baptism is done "in regards to" the remission of sins that is received upon repentance/believing in Him (Matthew 3:11; Mark 1:4; Acts 2:38; 3:19; 10:43; 11:17,18). The remission of sins/salvation is signified, but not procured in water baptism. That's "something" to do with the remission of sins/salvation. If the Bible says BELIEVE and be saved over and over again (John 3:15,16,18,36; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26; Acts 10:43; 13:39; 16:31; Romans 1:16; 3:22-28; 4:5; 10:4; 1 Corinthians 1:21 etc..) then why doubt the Bible or try to add something (works) to believing in Him? Christ is the Object of our belief/faith in receiving salvation. Is He the all sufficient means of our salvation Who we can fully trust in to save us? Or is He an insufficient Savior in which we need to add our works to His finished work of redemption in order to help Him save us?
your teaching are incorrect...the scripture teaches something happens at baptism..you have no faith so you don't believe...
[SUP]3 [/SUP]Know ye not, that so many of us as were baptized into Jesus Christ were baptized into his death?

[SUP]4 [/SUP]Therefore we are buried with him by baptism into death: that like as Christ was raised up from the dead by the glory of the Father, even so we also should walk in newness of life.

[SUP]5 [/SUP]For if we have been planted together in the likeness of his death, we shall be also in the likeness of his resurrection:

[SUP]6 [/SUP]Knowing this, that our old man is crucified with him, that the body of sin might be destroyed, that henceforth we should not serve sin.

[SUP]7 [/SUP]For he that is dead is freed from sin.

Water baptism is done "in regards to" the remission of sins that is received upon repentance/believing in Him (Matthew 3:11; Mark 1:4; Acts 2:38; 3:19; 10:43; 11:17,18). The remission of sins/salvation is signified, but not procured in water baptism. That's "something" to do with the remission of sins/salvation. If the Bible says BELIEVE and be saved over and over again
What exactly are you saved from? Seems to me you don't know you are being saved from sin and death...
Where does the scripture teach our sins are remitted if not at baptism?
 

notuptome

Senior Member
May 17, 2013
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You teach men what Christ commanded you to do .You don't baptise them with doctrine where does Christ teach you to baptise men in doctrine?. You baptise men in water.

Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you always, even unto the end of the world. Amen.

He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.
Its OK you may want find a way to make the word mean something else...someone did it elsewhere.

Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.

Christ came through the water (when he was baptised he received the Holy Spirit) That is the pattern he left for us but who am I to tell all the scholars and intellectual on CC... are we not taught baptism for the remission of sins...?
Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.

John preached baptism for the remission of sin. Was John baptism of God or of man?
Water baptism does not save. Gods grace is salvation. The scripture does not teach salvation by water baptism. What do you believe in? Water or Christ?

The bible was not written in English. You take a singular definition for the word baptize and apply it universally. That is intellectually dishonest.

You decide whether you are saved by grace or saved by baptism. As for me and my house we will serve the Lord. The whole counsel of God must agree. We are saved by grace received through faith. That is the sum total of the gospel.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
 
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Water baptism does not save. Gods grace is salvation. The scripture does not teach salvation by water baptism. What do you believe in? Water or Christ?

The bible was not written in English. You take a singular definition for the word baptize and apply it universally. That is intellectually dishonest.

You decide whether you are saved by grace or saved by baptism. As for me and my house we will serve the Lord. The whole counsel of God must agree. We are saved by grace received through faith. That is the sum total of the gospel.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
I give you 4 versions choose anyone.....
[SUP]20 [/SUP]Which sometime were disobedient, when once the longsuffering of God waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was a preparing, wherein few, that is, eight souls were saved by water.
[SUP]21 [/SUP]The like figure whereunto even baptism doth also now save us (not the putting away of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God,) by the resurrection of Jesus Christ:

[SUP]22 [/SUP]Who is gone into heaven, and is on the right hand of God; angels and authorities and powers being made subject unto him.

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[SUP]20 [/SUP]who in the past were disobedient, when God patiently waited in the days of Noah while an ark was being prepared. In it a few—that is, eight people[SUP][a][/SUP]—were saved through water. [SUP]21 [/SUP]Baptism, which corresponds to this, now saves you (not the removal of the filth of the flesh, but the pledge[SUP][b][/SUP] of a good conscience toward God) through the resurrection of Jesus Christ. [SUP]22 [/SUP]Now that He has gone into heaven, He is at God’s right hand with angels, authorities, and powers subject to Him.
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[SUP]20 [/SUP]spirits of those who, long before in the days of Noah, had refused to listen to God, though he waited patiently for them while Noah was building the ark. Yet only eight persons were saved from drowning in that terrible flood. [SUP]21 [/SUP](That, by the way, is what baptism pictures for us: In baptism we show that we have been saved from death and doom by the resurrection of Christ;[SUP][a][/SUP] not because our bodies are washed clean by the water but because in being baptized we are turning to God and asking him to cleanse our hearts from sin.) [SUP]22 [/SUP]And now Christ is in heaven, sitting in the place of honor next to God the Father, with all the angels and powers of heaven bowing before him and obeying him.
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[SUP]20 [/SUP]to those who were disobedient long ago when God waited patiently in the days of Noah while the ark was being built. In it only a few people, eight in all, were saved through water, [SUP]21 [/SUP]and this water symbolizes baptism that now saves you also—not the removal of dirt from the body but the pledge of a clear conscience toward God.[SUP][a][/SUP] It saves you by the resurrection of Jesus Christ, [SUP]22 [/SUP]who has gone into heaven and is at God’s right hand—with angels, authorities and powers in submission to him.
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
36,650
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Unless I wash you, you have no part with me.
- Jesus


(though Jesus Himself was not baptizing, but His disciples were)
(John 4:2)
 

mailmandan

Senior Member
Apr 7, 2014
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Let me ask you this. Was the baptism of John from God or from man?
*You STILL have not answered my question. If water baptism is absolutely required for salvation, then why did Jesus not mention it in the following verses? (3:15,16,18; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26). What is the ONE requirement that Jesus mentions 9 different times in each of these complete statements? BELIEVES. *What happened to baptism?

By what authority did John administer water baptism? Who sent him to preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins? Did he receive his authority from heaven, or from man? That is, from God or man? From God of course.

That is the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins.
Does "baptism of repentance for the remission of sins" mean that water baptism is FOR "in order to obtain" the remission of sins or FOR "in regards to/on the basis of" the remission of sins received upon repentance? In Matthew 3:11, John said "I baptize you with water FOR repentance.." Is this baptism FOR "in order to obtain" repentance or FOR "in regards to/on the basis of" repentance? Do you believe that water baptism is necessary for salvation before the cross and after the cross? The church of Christ (who SeaBass represents) teaches that under the old law, before the cross, baptism was not necessary for salvation but under the new law, after the cross, baptism is necessary for salvation. Do you believe that Mark 1:4; Luke 3:3 - "baptism of repentance for the remission of sins" (before the cross) teaches that baptism is necessary for salvation?

Now Jesus who had no sin was baptised by John the same baptism of repentance for the remission of sins. After he was baptised by John the Holy Spirit came upon him. Whose pattern are we following? John said no Lord I cannot baptise you, You should baptise me but Jesus was obedient to the Father and was baptised by John.
Did Jesus need to repent? Did He receive a baptism of repentance for the remission of sins? Did Jesus have sin? By Jesus getting water baptized, it was a part of Him "fulfilling all righteousness" (Matthew 3:13-15). All of God's righteous requirements for the Messiah were fully met in Jesus. This act of baptism on His part was a necessary part of the righteousness He secured for sinners. His righteousness is imputed to those who BELIEVE in Him (and not in works) for salvation (Romans 4:4-6; Philippians 3:9). Jesus lived a sinless, perfect life. He is our righteousness.

That is the way we are planted in the likeness of his death (water baptism) and reborn (born again of water) and we shall receive the gift of the holy ghost (born of the spirit). Men don't want to teach this because it is against their doctrine. Will you believe God or man?
You are confusing the picture (water baptism) with the reality (Spirit baptism). Jesus referred not to baptismal regeneration in John 3:5 but to the need for "cleansing." Thus Jesus made reference to the spiritual washing or purification of the soul, accomplished by the Holy Spirit at the moment of salvation (John 3:5; Ephesians 5:26; Titus 3:5). Notice in John 7:38-39, "He who believes in Me, as the Scripture has said, out of his heart will flow rivers of LIVING WATER. But this He spoke concerning the SPIRIT. *Did you see that? We also see this LIVING WATER in John 4:10,14. Water baptism is not the only "water" mentioned in scripture. There is a spiritual application to water in scripture as well, but the natural man can only understand natural water. Will you believe God or man?

[SUP]5 [/SUP]Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.

Some have this ridiculous notion that born of water means when a mother "water breaks". But that pertains to your fleshly birth and has nothing to do with your new birth.
[SUP]6 [/SUP]That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.
Have you even considered what Jesus said about living water in John 4:10,14; 7:37-39? In John 3:5, Jesus said, "born of water and the Spirit" He did not say born of baptism and the Spirit. To automatically read baptism into this verse simply because it mentions "water" is unwarranted. If "water" is arbitrarily defined as baptism, then we could just as justifiably say, "Out of his belly shall flow rivers of living baptism" in John 7:38. If this sounds ridiculous, it is no more so than the idea that water baptism is the source or the means of becoming born again. In John 4:10, Jesus said, "If you knew the gift of God, and who it is who says to you, 'Give Me a drink,' you would have asked Him, and He would have given you living water." In John 4:14, Jesus said, "but whoever drinks of the water that I shall give him will never thirst. But the water that I shall give him will become in him a fountain of water springing up into everlasting life. *Pay close attention. Jesus connects this living water here with everlasting life. Living water is not water baptism. In 1 Corinthians 12:13, we also read - ..drink into one Spirit. See how this all fits together? :D