Commandment #5 in the KJV is misstranslated
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Matthew 16:3 and in the morning, ‘Today it will be stormy, for the sky is red and overcast.’ You know how to interpret the appearance of the sky, but you cannot interpret the signs of the times.
Genesis 1:14 And God said, “Let there be lights in the vault of the sky to separate the day from the night, and let them serve as signs to mark sacred times, and days and years,
God wanted them to observed these cycles as marking points or heavenly calendar dates , that will help them by letting them to know that when God is coming. God does things accordingly to this pattern if they were of had practiced it, then they will know the next move. And so the Sabbaths were markers.
Genesis 1:14 And God said, “Let there be lights in the vault of the sky to separate the day from the night, and let them serve as signs to mark sacred times, and days and years,
God wanted them to observed these cycles as marking points or heavenly calendar dates , that will help them by letting them to know that when God is coming. God does things accordingly to this pattern if they were of had practiced it, then they will know the next move. And so the Sabbaths were markers.
O yes, I do understand your passion with the original autographs or mss. What I know about the "ORIGINAL MANUSCRIPTS" are lost and since long been gone. The first five Books could have been written in Egyptian, the language in which Moses was educated, the country of his people for 400 years. Hebrew is the language of Canaan (Isa. 19:18). One thing is for sure it were not Hebrew that Moses was speaking' down in Egypt. Much of Daniel is written in Syriac as well as Ezra. The conversations in the Gospels were surely not spoken in Greek. The point is that there had to be some translating going on somewhere, any way that you look at it. Just because a 2nd and 3rd century manuscripts have been found that were written in Greek does not mean one can dogmatically insist that they were originally written in Greek. Making dogmatic assertions, without the benefit of concrete evidence or a proof text, is not according to the Berean example. Again, it is the KJV I know that “All scripture is given by inspiration of God…”
God bless
God bless
Thank you for the advice to keep reading and enjoying KJV, however, how can one say enjoy and keep reading if it is nothing. It's not the inspired Word? But to me KJV is instrumental in my spiritual growth in the Lord and it is the Bible that I use in witnessing, preaching and use of Doctrine. It is the only Bible I know that encourage me to study the Word of God.
God bless
God bless
The Ten Commandments have been translated into multiple languages over time. Scripture is a collection of translations of biblical verses. Most of it is pretty straightforward but I believe Commandment 5 (five) was mistranslated. Or at least in the
Christian version. Commandment #5 in the KJV is as follows:
[5] Remember the sabbath day, to keep it holy
In my view the Christian translation of Commandment five (5) should read:
[5] Remember the day of rest, to keep it holy
What do you think-?
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Christian version. Commandment #5 in the KJV is as follows:
[5] Remember the sabbath day, to keep it holy
In my view the Christian translation of Commandment five (5) should read:
[5] Remember the day of rest, to keep it holy
What do you think-?
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So what’s wrong with “…the day of rest..”?
As a little background, the Ten Commandments were basically given through Moses to Israelite s. While it is true that Sabbath means rest, it can nevertheless be translated as “rest” in this specific instance.
Why?
Because it destroys the Sabbath is for the Israelite s only. The recipients of the Ten Commandments were not Gentiles and no Gentiles hold dear in observing this holy day of rest for the people of God (Israelites).
If translation be made “of rest” and not “Sabbath” as the KJV reading, any Gentile can remember or keep the 5[SUP]th[/SUP] commandment in “any day of the week” and even keep it holy but we are sorry because the event was intended to the Israelites only and the rest refers to the 6[SUP]th[/SUP] day where God rest. KJV is still correct then!
God bless
All i know about KJV uses the Biblical language. God spoke in Hebrew, Greek, Latin, Aramaic, common language during the time of the Prophets and Apostles but they were no longer been spoken today. English now is the common language where we can communicate. If i use Tagalog or my native dialect you can not even comprehend that. Yea, God didn't spoke in English only but nevertheless it is the language many learned and comprehend.
God bless
God bless
Yes, Moses as it says in the N.T. that Moses was educated in the way of the Egyptians, but he spoken very little of the language that the Hebrew had spoken. In the N.T. They has been in captivity under Rome, and which eventually they all had spoken Latin, Aramaic and Greek, because of the different cultures of people that were living among them, but their first language were Latin-romano-Greek, because of their names are Latin- Romano word like James and which the 'J' has came from the German translation, and so it is Ieames( pronounces like Jah-mez Yah-mez), which it is the Greek pronunciation for Yahkob (Jacob). All of the names were Greek words, even Jesus is a Latin word. When Jesus was on the cross, He shouted out Eloi, Eloi, and the people around were trying to ciphered what He was saying; some thought that he was calling out to Elijah but could not understand the rest, and which Elijah does sound close to Eloi from someone that didn't know how to speak Hebrew. But the gospel were water down later on due to many cultural differences started o mingle with one another. Like the Mexican American, that they doesn't speak clear Spanish like the Mexicans of Mexico. Mexican American sort of speak spanish with a mixture of borrowed words from the English language and pronunciation is slightly different from the Mexican's Language. .