Eclipse...
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Here I am watching the eclipse yesterday while I was delivering mail. It was so cool! 
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Blain, this is not about what I believe, at this point. Please note, I am quoting you directly, go back to your posts if you think I have changed anything except the bolding.
You said in your first post "this is a sign of the rapture" then you ask me where I said you believe this, and I quote the first post.
In your third post, you say "but nowhere did I say it was a sign of the rapture"!
Yes, you said it in your first post I quoted, which I also quoted in a second and third time. If you don't want it to be a sign of the rapture, then don't say it is.
Further, I also pointed out, that even if I BELIEVED in the rapture, that there is no such thing as "sign of the rapture." There either is a rapture, or there is no rapture. There is no SIGN of a rapture!
You and others spend so much time looking for signs, instead of looking for the reality. No, I don't believe there is a rapture in the Bible. But, if I did, I would not be looking for a sign like a solar eclipse, I would be looking for the thing itself, which would be the actual rapture. Sometimes people are so wrapped up in signs, they forget that if such a thing happens, there will be no sign, but the rapture itself.
In fact, I believe that Jesus is coming again, no rapture, as the Bible clearly states, but that does not negate that you said it was a sign, just read your own words!
I distinctly said there was NO THE Tribulation in the Bible, using the Definite article, the word THE! When you use the definite article, you make it into an event, rather than just general tribulation, which has been seen down through the ages.
I said THE Tribulation, and you quote the following:
""For then there will be great tribulation, such as has not been from the beginning of the world until now, no, and never will be. And if those days had not been cut short, no human being would be saved. But for the sake of the elect those days will be cut short" Matt 24:21-22
Your eschatology is based on not understanding the importance of the definite article, versus NO definite article. So, that is your first error. There is no discrete time period called THE TRIBULATION. Do you understand English grammar? I could also quote the Greek, but there is no point, as it is identical in English. The word THE and Tribulation do not appear together in the Bible, and not in the verse that you quote as proof. Because the definite article is not there, it is therefore indefinite. It points to no specific time.
Just times of tribulation, but not a specific time, and does not specify any certain or definite time. In fact, the way you continue to use the words "the tribulation" points to a monadic use of the definite article. That is, a one of a kind, or unique instance. So, an understood specific and concrete time. However, because there is no definite article, you simply cannot use the word tribulation to describe a specific time, "the Great Tribulation" after the so-called rapture. It simply is not there!
Perhaps you would be advised to look at the little words in your eschatology, which have GREAT meaning. The lack of the word "the" means that there is NO "the Great Tribulation!" Just that there will be tribulations, which is certainly true.
"ἔπειτα ἡμεῖς οἱ ζῶντες οἱ περιλειπόμενοι ἅμα σὺν αὐτοῖς ἁρπαγησόμεθα ἐν νεφέλαις εἰς ἀπάντησιν τοῦ κυρίου εἰς ἀέρα· καὶ οὕτως πάντοτε σὺν κυρίῳ ἐσόμεθα." 1 Thess. 4:17 Greek. "
As far as this fictitious rapture, you have proven once again to me, that it does not exist. In fact, the word in the Greek is a verb! An action, not a person, place or thing. In other words, not a noun. There is no noun that is linguistically related to ἁρπάζω or harpazo, which means to snatch or seize in Greek. So, while an action may happen, it is not a specific noun, nor is it definite.
Further, the thing you are missing in this important verse, is that there is going to be a meeting. That is the noun, not some fictitious invention of Jerome in the Latin Vulgate, which is where this mistake first occurred. So, this word, ἀπαντησις is only used three times in the Bible. It means "meet and return." So we will meet the Lord in the ἀέρα which means the air around us. Not the upper atmosphere. And we will meet Jesus and return with him to the earth.
No rapture, no "The" tribulation!
Perhaps you need to take all that time studying the wrong things, learn some grammar, and certainly stop believing the dispensationalist lies you are constantly flaunting in this forum.
Finally, if you look carefully at what you have written, you have pulled various verses out of context to support your wrong eschatology. The minute you start jamming verses together, which are out of context, you are probably talking about a wrong doctrine. That is, one which has committed the crime of eisegesis, or trying to make the verses say what you want them to mean. Putting meaning INTO (είς - in) the Bible, instead of doing exegesis, pulling the meaning out (εξ - out) of the words that are there. You might want to try a course or two on hermeneutics, which is Bible interpretation, and then go back and look at the mess you have created by misinterpreting the grammar, the words, adding words which are not there, and playing fast and loose with the context of the Bible!
I said THE Tribulation, and you quote the following:
""For then there will be great tribulation, such as has not been from the beginning of the world until now, no, and never will be. And if those days had not been cut short, no human being would be saved. But for the sake of the elect those days will be cut short" Matt 24:21-22
Your eschatology is based on not understanding the importance of the definite article, versus NO definite article. So, that is your first error. There is no discrete time period called THE TRIBULATION. Do you understand English grammar? I could also quote the Greek, but there is no point, as it is identical in English. The word THE and Tribulation do not appear together in the Bible, and not in the verse that you quote as proof. Because the definite article is not there, it is therefore indefinite. It points to no specific time.
Just times of tribulation, but not a specific time, and does not specify any certain or definite time. In fact, the way you continue to use the words "the tribulation" points to a monadic use of the definite article. That is, a one of a kind, or unique instance. So, an understood specific and concrete time. However, because there is no definite article, you simply cannot use the word tribulation to describe a specific time, "the Great Tribulation" after the so-called rapture. It simply is not there!
Perhaps you would be advised to look at the little words in your eschatology, which have GREAT meaning. The lack of the word "the" means that there is NO "the Great Tribulation!" Just that there will be tribulations, which is certainly true.
"ἔπειτα ἡμεῖς οἱ ζῶντες οἱ περιλειπόμενοι ἅμα σὺν αὐτοῖς ἁρπαγησόμεθα ἐν νεφέλαις εἰς ἀπάντησιν τοῦ κυρίου εἰς ἀέρα· καὶ οὕτως πάντοτε σὺν κυρίῳ ἐσόμεθα." 1 Thess. 4:17 Greek. "
As far as this fictitious rapture, you have proven once again to me, that it does not exist. In fact, the word in the Greek is a verb! An action, not a person, place or thing. In other words, not a noun. There is no noun that is linguistically related to ἁρπάζω or harpazo, which means to snatch or seize in Greek. So, while an action may happen, it is not a specific noun, nor is it definite.
Further, the thing you are missing in this important verse, is that there is going to be a meeting. That is the noun, not some fictitious invention of Jerome in the Latin Vulgate, which is where this mistake first occurred. So, this word, ἀπαντησις is only used three times in the Bible. It means "meet and return." So we will meet the Lord in the ἀέρα which means the air around us. Not the upper atmosphere. And we will meet Jesus and return with him to the earth.
No rapture, no "The" tribulation!
Perhaps you need to take all that time studying the wrong things, learn some grammar, and certainly stop believing the dispensationalist lies you are constantly flaunting in this forum.
Finally, if you look carefully at what you have written, you have pulled various verses out of context to support your wrong eschatology. The minute you start jamming verses together, which are out of context, you are probably talking about a wrong doctrine. That is, one which has committed the crime of eisegesis, or trying to make the verses say what you want them to mean. Putting meaning INTO (είς - in) the Bible, instead of doing exegesis, pulling the meaning out (εξ - out) of the words that are there. You might want to try a course or two on hermeneutics, which is Bible interpretation, and then go back and look at the mess you have created by misinterpreting the grammar, the words, adding words which are not there, and playing fast and loose with the context of the Bible!
Here I am watching the eclipse yesterday while I was delivering mail. It was so cool!
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mmd,
I think you need to grow a full-grown beard, you often sound like a Rabbi...
Here I am watching the eclipse yesterday while I was delivering mail. It was so cool!
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an old friend recently e-mailed us and told hub and me that he and a member
of his family drove up from here=Fla., to w.vir., and witnessed a crystal clear
eclipse' - he described it as one of a few really exciting and memorable times
of his life, (I think he's around 80!) plus, sharing it with a family member -
he described it as AWESOME=but equals, a brand of Holiness to us from Yeshua'...
of his family drove up from here=Fla., to w.vir., and witnessed a crystal clear
eclipse' - he described it as one of a few really exciting and memorable times
of his life, (I think he's around 80!) plus, sharing it with a family member -
he described it as AWESOME=but equals, a brand of Holiness to us from Yeshua'...