The difference the Dictionary makes

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Diggydug

Junior Member
Nov 16, 2016
2
0
1
#1
An old dictionary, the one with the most definitions wins. Here's why: When a person makes a statement (in English) looking into the full meaning of the words in that statement will give the hearer the sum (total amount) of the meaning of what was said. This is also the definition of translation. Likewise, Jesus spoke in figurative language, God says, "Compare Spiritual with Spiritual, for the flesh and the Spirit are at enmity with each other". In closing, I have yet to hear a preacher speak without carnal language, from a temporal mind.
So come study with me. 1, no more than 2 make 3, "For God is a God of order and not confusion" and " A 3 strand cord is not easily broken.
 
U

Ugly

Guest
#2
Old dictionaries are not ideal. Old dictionaries contain old definitions which may not be valid in modern vernacular. If you see a question asking 'should gays be banned from the military?' and look that up in an 'old' dictionary you may wonder why anyone thinks happy people should not be allowed in the military.
Also, in modern times, it is Very common for people to apply their own twists or definitions to words. To frequently look up the meaning of words to have a better understanding of what a person says automatically assumes the user has a dictionary like understanding of the word. Or the same interpretation of that word as a dictionary. This has, in reality, a strong possibility to misguide you from what the person really means. The way to best know what a person means is by listening to their words and the intentions they put behind them. Not by searching outdated definitions that may not even apply anymore, or definitions that may not apply to the speakers intentions.

A great example of this is your accusation of 'all' pastors you've heard using 'carnal' words. I have a basic understanding of the word. I went to a dictionary to ensure there was not another meaning i was unaware of. Yet i still have no idea what exactly that accusation means. We speak the language we have. The same Jesus did in his time. So how exactly is it 'carnal' language to use the only words we have available. And how is this any different than Jesus doing the same? Did Jesus use carnal language?

Also i would be curious to know what qualifications you have to judge countless numbers of trained pastors due to their 'carnal' language usage. What esteems you to be above them and have any Godly right to judge and accuse so many of something, particular such a vague accusation?

As far as Jesus figurative speaking, at times he did, but not always. And what he did was take physical things as a way to explain spiritual things. He took something we could relate to and used it to explain things we would otherwise have trouble understanding. And not just Jesus but all throughout the bible. Paul talks about 'winning the race'. Not a literal race, but it was used to explain an idea. The 'armor of God' is not literal armor. But using worldly things to explain spiritual concepts. So my best understanding of your 'carnal words' accusation would also apply to Jesus and many of the writers of the bible.

I suspect a bible study with you would provide more of an opportunity for you to teach some odd spiritual agenda, given your vague accusations and claim that you have half of an elementary school education. What i've seen of you so far has proved to be purely questionable and shady. Your few posts scream 'hidden agenda' and 'dishonest'.