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Re: The Authorized Geneva Bible vs that Modernist KJV, unauthorized!
I meant Historical Ecclesiology which cannot be confirmed unless you had a time machine.
As for the Bible being an authority: Jesus nor any of the apostles claimed Scripture was open to interpretation. God has one clear meaning for Scripture that is taught to us by the Spirit.
I meant Historical Ecclesiology which cannot be confirmed unless you had a time machine.
As for the Bible being an authority: Jesus nor any of the apostles claimed Scripture was open to interpretation. God has one clear meaning for Scripture that is taught to us by the Spirit.
I am not going to dispute that you are right or wrong because that is not the true issue here. The issue is faith. A person must start in faith and REALLY BELIEVE before your brain(heart, spirit) will achieve a higher level of enlightenment to understand this contradiction (God will reveal this truth by grace). That is not a lie. There are two sides to every human and to achieve your full potential both sides must be developed. A doctor or scholar can go to school for years and become successful and work 20-30 years and heal hundreds of people and retire a millionaire happy with a family but what if on top of that he understands and develops his spiritual awareness also....then what can be achieved? Cure millions, develop things to alter the direction of humanity...
what is truly known beyond self achievement without a proper spiritual awakening?
what is truly known beyond self achievement without a proper spiritual awakening?
By saying this you are saying that the Lord is wrong. Almost all of scripture is written in Hebrew by persons whose language is Hebrew. Hebrew is a language of a people with a different mindset. It will not transfer into other languages without losing some of its meaning. According to the earliest historians, even the gospels were originally in Hebrew. By insisting that the translations we have are perfect, you are denying God's message to us. Even Paul was Hebrew!
L
Re: The Authorized Geneva Bible vs that Modernist KJV, unauthorized!
Historical Ecclesiology is not a term or a thing. It's historical by nature.
The fact that scripture is not open to private interpretation has nothing to do with the fact that it is not an authority. The bible is interpreted, so the question is, are you going to do it privately or go with what has always been believed?
Scripture can have multiple meanings for a person, it's vastly deep. It's revealed to us by the Holy Spirit.
Historical Ecclesiology is not a term or a thing. It's historical by nature.
The fact that scripture is not open to private interpretation has nothing to do with the fact that it is not an authority. The bible is interpreted, so the question is, are you going to do it privately or go with what has always been believed?
Scripture can have multiple meanings for a person, it's vastly deep. It's revealed to us by the Holy Spirit.
B
How about the bible in Welsh, Queen Elizabeth 1st had William Morgan translate the bible into Welsh to try and quiet the welsh who were threatening to revolt.
There are certain translations within that bible that are closer to the original Greek and Hebrew, e.g. When Jesus spits in to the eyes of the blind man to make him see, in the welsh version Jesus spits in the dust and forms two eyes and inserts them into the sockets. Have you never wondered why the synagog leaders called his mother to witness whether this was the same man or not? there is quite a difference between someone born without eyes to some one who has eyes that can not see.
Not that everyone should go out and buy one and learn the language.
I hope that the original poster gets some sort of finality to this question. To answer the original post properly, it dose not matter what version you read. Reading Gods word will make your mind keener to hear his true word. Jesus said "He (the holy spirit) will take of what is mine and make it known to you".
Just keep your sight firmly fixed on Jesus, any one trying to make things awkward or tough in your walk dose not have your best interests in mind. Jesus is bigger than any version of anything, only in Him is fulfillment, read what you have and trust Him to show you what you need to know.
God bless
There are certain translations within that bible that are closer to the original Greek and Hebrew, e.g. When Jesus spits in to the eyes of the blind man to make him see, in the welsh version Jesus spits in the dust and forms two eyes and inserts them into the sockets. Have you never wondered why the synagog leaders called his mother to witness whether this was the same man or not? there is quite a difference between someone born without eyes to some one who has eyes that can not see.
Not that everyone should go out and buy one and learn the language.
I hope that the original poster gets some sort of finality to this question. To answer the original post properly, it dose not matter what version you read. Reading Gods word will make your mind keener to hear his true word. Jesus said "He (the holy spirit) will take of what is mine and make it known to you".
Just keep your sight firmly fixed on Jesus, any one trying to make things awkward or tough in your walk dose not have your best interests in mind. Jesus is bigger than any version of anything, only in Him is fulfillment, read what you have and trust Him to show you what you need to know.
God bless
It is true that Jesus is the Word (Who is the second person of the Godhead) made flesh. It is also true that Jesus Christ is perfect, too. However, you have to understand that the written Word always abides with the living Word (Jesus). They are always tied together. How so? Well, for example: If I were to speak or write words to you in person, you would realize that these words are not the entirety of me or something that makes up my entire being, but you would understand that they do come from me. My words (that I formulated) would be my thoughts expressed in either spoken or word form. These things conveys my mind and my heart. For if I written a love letter to my fiance, she would understand that the letter is not me, but she could easily cherish that letter because my heart and thoughts are expressed in those words. For those words are expression of my inner most intentions and being about how I feel about her; And she would understand that. It's the same with the Word of God. The Bible is God's love letter to mankind. Yes, there are stories in there that do not appear like your standard love letter as we understand it, but every page of the Bible is ultimately about our Lord and Savior God (Jesus), and God is love.
Jesus says, abide in me and abide in my words (John 15:7). Jesus also quoted Scripture many times as a part of His ministry and as a part of His defense, too. In fact, Jesus said that man shall not live by bread alone but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God (Matthew 4:4). What word? Scripture. For all Scripture is given by inspiration of God (2 Timothy 3:16). For no prophecy of old came by the will of man, but holy men speak as they were moved by the Holy Ghost (2 Peter 1:21). For Paul says that we (believers) did not receive the Word as the words of men, but in truth, as the Word of God which works in those who believe (1 Thessalonians 2:13). For faith comes by hearing and hearing the Word of God (Romans 10:17). For Christ sanctifies the church with the washing of the water of the word (Ephesians 5:25, 26). Let the word of Christ dwell in you richly in all wisdom; teaching and admonishing one another in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs, singing with grace in your hearts to the Lord (Colossians 3:16). Neither have I gone back from the commandment of his lips; I have esteemed the words of his mouth more than my necessary food (Job 23:12).
In fact, Jesus chastises the Pharisees for not knowing the Scriptures (Mark 12:24).
Why?
Because the entrance of His words gives light giving understanding unto the simple (Psalm 119:130).
Because hiding His Word within our heart will help in not sinning against Him (Psalm 119:11).
No, the Bible claims itself to be the divinely inspired Word of God (2 Timothy 3:16) (2 Peter 1:21).
Jesus says, abide in me and abide in my words (John 15:7). Jesus also quoted Scripture many times as a part of His ministry and as a part of His defense, too. In fact, Jesus said that man shall not live by bread alone but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God (Matthew 4:4). What word? Scripture. For all Scripture is given by inspiration of God (2 Timothy 3:16). For no prophecy of old came by the will of man, but holy men speak as they were moved by the Holy Ghost (2 Peter 1:21). For Paul says that we (believers) did not receive the Word as the words of men, but in truth, as the Word of God which works in those who believe (1 Thessalonians 2:13). For faith comes by hearing and hearing the Word of God (Romans 10:17). For Christ sanctifies the church with the washing of the water of the word (Ephesians 5:25, 26). Let the word of Christ dwell in you richly in all wisdom; teaching and admonishing one another in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs, singing with grace in your hearts to the Lord (Colossians 3:16). Neither have I gone back from the commandment of his lips; I have esteemed the words of his mouth more than my necessary food (Job 23:12).
In fact, Jesus chastises the Pharisees for not knowing the Scriptures (Mark 12:24).
Why?
Because the entrance of His words gives light giving understanding unto the simple (Psalm 119:130).
Because hiding His Word within our heart will help in not sinning against Him (Psalm 119:11).
No, the Bible claims itself to be the divinely inspired Word of God (2 Timothy 3:16) (2 Peter 1:21).
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Re: The Authorized Geneva Bible vs that Modernist KJV, unauthorized!
There are two types of ways you can understand the Church (Ecclesiology). One way is using Scripture and the other way is looking at uninspired man made written historical documents. Scripture is the only reliable source in understanding the church because humans are not always truthful in their dealings (Even amongst those who are self professing believers or Christians).
While Scripture can have various meanings in different passages, there is one main or major intended meaning for each sentence in Scripture. That's why it is of no private interpretation (2 Peter 1:20). For you can't say there is a personal interpretion or any interpretion that goes beyond the common plain normal reading. For if there were was no one major way to read the Bible, you would have a huge source of confusion that wouldn't make any sense. However, God is not the author of confusion, though (1 Corinthians 14:33).
There are two types of ways you can understand the Church (Ecclesiology). One way is using Scripture and the other way is looking at uninspired man made written historical documents. Scripture is the only reliable source in understanding the church because humans are not always truthful in their dealings (Even amongst those who are self professing believers or Christians).
While Scripture can have various meanings in different passages, there is one main or major intended meaning for each sentence in Scripture. That's why it is of no private interpretation (2 Peter 1:20). For you can't say there is a personal interpretion or any interpretion that goes beyond the common plain normal reading. For if there were was no one major way to read the Bible, you would have a huge source of confusion that wouldn't make any sense. However, God is not the author of confusion, though (1 Corinthians 14:33).
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Let's actually look at those passages and see, shall we?
Psalm 12:6
"The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times."
No mention of the "Word of God" here. I just see the words of the Lord. Plural.
Psalm 119:139-140
"My zeal hath consumed me, because mine enemies have forgotten thy words. Thy word is very pure: therefore thy servant loveth it."
The word being pure in verse 140 is in context to the word "words" in verse 139.
Proverbs 30:5
"Every word of God is pure: he is a shield unto them that put their trust in him."
Proverbs is speaking about the written word. It uses the word "Every" word of God is pure. Meaning there are many words. Unless you believe there are many Christs, this can't be in reference to Jesus.
Psalm 12:6
"The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times."
No mention of the "Word of God" here. I just see the words of the Lord. Plural.
Psalm 119:139-140
"My zeal hath consumed me, because mine enemies have forgotten thy words. Thy word is very pure: therefore thy servant loveth it."
The word being pure in verse 140 is in context to the word "words" in verse 139.
Proverbs 30:5
"Every word of God is pure: he is a shield unto them that put their trust in him."
Proverbs is speaking about the written word. It uses the word "Every" word of God is pure. Meaning there are many words. Unless you believe there are many Christs, this can't be in reference to Jesus.
As for the rest of the passages, I just highlighted the various words, to clarify that it is speaking of the written Word of God.
Psalm 12:6-7
"The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times. Thou shalt keep them, O LORD, thou shalt preserve them from this generation for ever."
Isaiah 40:5-8
"And the glory of the LORD shall be revealed, and all flesh shall see it together: for the mouth of the LORD hath spoken it. The voice said, Cry. And he said, What shall I cry? All flesh is grass, and all the goodliness thereof is as the flower of the field: The grass withereth, the flower fadeth: because the spirit of the LORD bloweth upon it: surely the people is grass. The grass withereth, the flower fadeth: but the word of our God shall stand for ever."
Isaiah 40:14
"With whom took he counsel, and who instructed him, and taught him in the path of judgment, and taught him knowledge, and shewed to him the way of understanding?
As for 1 Peter 1:25: It is a cross reference passage taken from the OT passage in Isaiah 40:7-8.
Psalm 12:6-7
"The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times. Thou shalt keep them, O LORD, thou shalt preserve them from this generation for ever."
Isaiah 40:5-8
"And the glory of the LORD shall be revealed, and all flesh shall see it together: for the mouth of the LORD hath spoken it. The voice said, Cry. And he said, What shall I cry? All flesh is grass, and all the goodliness thereof is as the flower of the field: The grass withereth, the flower fadeth: because the spirit of the LORD bloweth upon it: surely the people is grass. The grass withereth, the flower fadeth: but the word of our God shall stand for ever."
Isaiah 40:14
"With whom took he counsel, and who instructed him, and taught him in the path of judgment, and taught him knowledge, and shewed to him the way of understanding?
As for 1 Peter 1:25: It is a cross reference passage taken from the OT passage in Isaiah 40:7-8.
In fact, if you don't believe God's Word is an authority, then why did Jesus quote Scripture as if it had power (authority) when He was tempted by the devil?
I will tell you why. Jesus quoted Scripture because He was quoting the very words of God. This is fitting because Jesus is God Almighty in the flesh (Who came to this Earth to die on the cross so as to save man from his sins).
I will tell you why. Jesus quoted Scripture because He was quoting the very words of God. This is fitting because Jesus is God Almighty in the flesh (Who came to this Earth to die on the cross so as to save man from his sins).
2
It is a plain fact that the King James is a bit unclear
on topics that KINGS dont like
, King James VI and I convened the Hampton Court Conference where a new English version was conceived in response to the perceived problems of the earlier translations as preached by the Puritans,a faction within the Church of England.
James gave the translators instructions intended to guarantee that the new version would conform to the ecclesiologyand reflect the episcopal structure of the Church of England and its belief in an ordained clergy.The translation was done by 47 scholars, all of whom were members of the Church of England
in other words he WATERED IT DOWN to reflect more thier teachings on ever burnig hell, once c=saved always savedm and predestination that the church had difficulty supporting against the puritans!
like
you know
having a little sex with thier concubines
you know like that
so instead of putting in DIVORCE PLAIN AS DAY they
put in
like
something that is
like
totally unclear
like PUT AWAY instead of divorce
it isnt WRONG
it is must hard to understand that way...
but looking up the word easily shows the truth in the conordance how it was watered down
and they wtered down DIVORCE
that might
even be taken
as
maybe dying
when they said PUT AWAY instead of divorce!
now that is obvious
the puritans shouted NO DIVORCE and the king told his minions, fix that!
and they did
like a couple are married
and his wife dies
and it is so sad
so he PUT HER AWAY
so this wasseling
allows for PERVERSIONS to creep into the churhc
where as other versions say it STRAIGHT OUT
DO NOT DIVORCE YOUR WIVES OR HUSBANDS!
oh my
!
such plain talk!
we WANT to have little trysts dont we?
oh yes
in theis LARGE ONCE SAVED ALWAYS SAVED FALSE DOCTRINE CHURCH in our town, my friend who was a contractor, was fixing an airconditioning in this huge church
and while he was working in the attic, the pastor and the head elder walked in talking of all the women they sexually conquered in the church and bragging about it
these are once saved always saved people!
so
they LOVE the king james that allows
like KING JAMES
easy to prove
on topics that KINGS dont like
, King James VI and I convened the Hampton Court Conference where a new English version was conceived in response to the perceived problems of the earlier translations as preached by the Puritans,a faction within the Church of England.
James gave the translators instructions intended to guarantee that the new version would conform to the ecclesiologyand reflect the episcopal structure of the Church of England and its belief in an ordained clergy.The translation was done by 47 scholars, all of whom were members of the Church of England
in other words he WATERED IT DOWN to reflect more thier teachings on ever burnig hell, once c=saved always savedm and predestination that the church had difficulty supporting against the puritans!
like
you know
having a little sex with thier concubines
you know like that
so instead of putting in DIVORCE PLAIN AS DAY they
put in
like
something that is
like
totally unclear
like PUT AWAY instead of divorce
it isnt WRONG
it is must hard to understand that way...
but looking up the word easily shows the truth in the conordance how it was watered down
and they wtered down DIVORCE
that might
even be taken
as
maybe dying
when they said PUT AWAY instead of divorce!
now that is obvious
the puritans shouted NO DIVORCE and the king told his minions, fix that!
and they did
like a couple are married
and his wife dies
and it is so sad
so he PUT HER AWAY
so this wasseling
allows for PERVERSIONS to creep into the churhc
where as other versions say it STRAIGHT OUT
DO NOT DIVORCE YOUR WIVES OR HUSBANDS!
oh my
!
such plain talk!
we WANT to have little trysts dont we?
oh yes
in theis LARGE ONCE SAVED ALWAYS SAVED FALSE DOCTRINE CHURCH in our town, my friend who was a contractor, was fixing an airconditioning in this huge church
and while he was working in the attic, the pastor and the head elder walked in talking of all the women they sexually conquered in the church and bragging about it
these are once saved always saved people!
so
they LOVE the king james that allows
like KING JAMES
easy to prove
As for claiming that there are errors in the King James:
Well, not only do I believe Scripture supports that God's Word is perfect and has been preserved for all generations, but God has personally shown me that trusting in His Word (instead of questioning it) will result in having a stronger faith and trust in the Lord.
In fact, after I shortly got saved back in 1992, I was already quickly aware of the differences between the Modern Translations and the King James. I had seen that the changes were not for the better, but for the worse. I looked at a lot of the passages in the book titled, "New Age Bible Versions" and I did not need to be convinced any further.
So I had come to believe from the very start that God's Word was perfect and without error and that has never changed. Yet, that does not mean God did not test me to see if I would trust His Word and continue to have faith in Him or not. For one day I read a book that pointed out a supposed contradiction in God's Word. At first, I appeared shocked. But I had the awakening by the power of the Spirit and knew I was saved. So there was no turning back. I knew the truth. Yet I could not explain what I had seen in the King James.
Now, do you know what I did way back then in the 90's when I discovered this? I basically said to the Lord that I did not have an answer for what I was seeing within His Word, but I was just going to trust Him and His Word was true regardless.
And you know what happened after that? Well, I am glad I did trust the Lord's Word back then. For after I renewed my faith in 2010 after God brought a loving Christian woman into my life from half way around the world, I had began to study God's Word again and made a very interesting discovery about this supposed contradiction.
So here it is:
Did Solomon have 40,000 stalls for his horses (1 Kings 4:26), or 4,000 stalls (2 Chronicles 9:25)?
Firstly, it should be noted that this “contradiction” does not appear in the New International Version, which states that Solomon had “four thousand stalls” in both verses. However, the NIV translation mistakenly states that Solomon had twelve thousand horses, when in fact the original Hebrew text (and all other English translations of it) state that Solomon had twelve thousand horsemen. This error results in three horses per chariot (an unusually odd number) and three horses per stall (which seems a little crowded). Opening a lexicon, we see that the King James Version gives an accurate rendering of the Hebrew text (correctly translating the Hebrew parash as “horsemen”), and for this reason we know that this translation can be trusted in accurately explaining this “contradiction”.
With that said, let’s examine these two verses. 1 Kings 4:26 states, “Solomon had forty thousand stalls of horses for his chariots, and twelve thousand horsemen” while 2 Chronicles 9:25 states “Solomon had four thousand stalls for horses and chariots, and twelve thousand horsemen”.
1 Kings 4:26 counts only the horses that were intended to be used “for his chariots”. On the other hand, 2 Chronicles 9:25 counts both the horses “and chariots” together.
1 Kings 4:26 states that Solomon had forty thousand stalls of horses, meaning that he had forty-thousand stalls with horses in them. 2 Chronicles 9:25 counts both horses and chariots together. If each chariot stall contains within it ten horse stalls (perhaps one stall for each horse that pulls the chariot) then there is no contradiction.
Solomon had 40,000 stalls for his horses. Solomon had 4,000 chariots (three riders per chariot, since we know from both 1 Kings 4:26 and 2 Chronicles 9:25 that he had twelve thousand horsemen) and every chariot had its own stall. Chariots are pulled by multiple horses – in this case, ten horses. Each chariot stall had within it ten individual horse stalls – one for each horse that pulled that specific chariot.
In fact, here is a similar one.
Did David capture 1,700 of King Zobah's horsemen (2 Samuel 8:4), or was it 7,000 (1 Chronicles 18:4)?
2 Samuel 8:4 says that David took 700 horsemen, while 1 Chronicles 18:4 says that David took 7000 horsemen. These verses are not in contradiction. The King James version correctly describes 1000 chariots in both 2 Samuel 8:4 and 1 Chronicles 18:4. Both verses also state that David reserved 100 chariots. Combining the information from these two verses we see that David took 700 horsemen for the chariots he kept, but he took a total of 7000 horsemen away from the enemy king. The two different numbers for the number of chariots provide us with a consistent 7:1 horseman-to-chariot ratio. This is reasonable, as seven horsemen could easily share the same chariot.
So we can conclude that if one believes the Bible is not written entirely by God and reads something at face value like the above passages and or Matthew 26:17 without the help of the Spirit teaching them, then one is only going to see errors in God's Word where none really exist.
1 Thessalonians 2:13
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Well, not only do I believe Scripture supports that God's Word is perfect and has been preserved for all generations, but God has personally shown me that trusting in His Word (instead of questioning it) will result in having a stronger faith and trust in the Lord.
In fact, after I shortly got saved back in 1992, I was already quickly aware of the differences between the Modern Translations and the King James. I had seen that the changes were not for the better, but for the worse. I looked at a lot of the passages in the book titled, "New Age Bible Versions" and I did not need to be convinced any further.
So I had come to believe from the very start that God's Word was perfect and without error and that has never changed. Yet, that does not mean God did not test me to see if I would trust His Word and continue to have faith in Him or not. For one day I read a book that pointed out a supposed contradiction in God's Word. At first, I appeared shocked. But I had the awakening by the power of the Spirit and knew I was saved. So there was no turning back. I knew the truth. Yet I could not explain what I had seen in the King James.
Now, do you know what I did way back then in the 90's when I discovered this? I basically said to the Lord that I did not have an answer for what I was seeing within His Word, but I was just going to trust Him and His Word was true regardless.
And you know what happened after that? Well, I am glad I did trust the Lord's Word back then. For after I renewed my faith in 2010 after God brought a loving Christian woman into my life from half way around the world, I had began to study God's Word again and made a very interesting discovery about this supposed contradiction.
So here it is:
Did Solomon have 40,000 stalls for his horses (1 Kings 4:26), or 4,000 stalls (2 Chronicles 9:25)?
Firstly, it should be noted that this “contradiction” does not appear in the New International Version, which states that Solomon had “four thousand stalls” in both verses. However, the NIV translation mistakenly states that Solomon had twelve thousand horses, when in fact the original Hebrew text (and all other English translations of it) state that Solomon had twelve thousand horsemen. This error results in three horses per chariot (an unusually odd number) and three horses per stall (which seems a little crowded). Opening a lexicon, we see that the King James Version gives an accurate rendering of the Hebrew text (correctly translating the Hebrew parash as “horsemen”), and for this reason we know that this translation can be trusted in accurately explaining this “contradiction”.
With that said, let’s examine these two verses. 1 Kings 4:26 states, “Solomon had forty thousand stalls of horses for his chariots, and twelve thousand horsemen” while 2 Chronicles 9:25 states “Solomon had four thousand stalls for horses and chariots, and twelve thousand horsemen”.
1 Kings 4:26 counts only the horses that were intended to be used “for his chariots”. On the other hand, 2 Chronicles 9:25 counts both the horses “and chariots” together.
1 Kings 4:26 states that Solomon had forty thousand stalls of horses, meaning that he had forty-thousand stalls with horses in them. 2 Chronicles 9:25 counts both horses and chariots together. If each chariot stall contains within it ten horse stalls (perhaps one stall for each horse that pulls the chariot) then there is no contradiction.
Solomon had 40,000 stalls for his horses. Solomon had 4,000 chariots (three riders per chariot, since we know from both 1 Kings 4:26 and 2 Chronicles 9:25 that he had twelve thousand horsemen) and every chariot had its own stall. Chariots are pulled by multiple horses – in this case, ten horses. Each chariot stall had within it ten individual horse stalls – one for each horse that pulled that specific chariot.
In fact, here is a similar one.
Did David capture 1,700 of King Zobah's horsemen (2 Samuel 8:4), or was it 7,000 (1 Chronicles 18:4)?
2 Samuel 8:4 says that David took 700 horsemen, while 1 Chronicles 18:4 says that David took 7000 horsemen. These verses are not in contradiction. The King James version correctly describes 1000 chariots in both 2 Samuel 8:4 and 1 Chronicles 18:4. Both verses also state that David reserved 100 chariots. Combining the information from these two verses we see that David took 700 horsemen for the chariots he kept, but he took a total of 7000 horsemen away from the enemy king. The two different numbers for the number of chariots provide us with a consistent 7:1 horseman-to-chariot ratio. This is reasonable, as seven horsemen could easily share the same chariot.
So we can conclude that if one believes the Bible is not written entirely by God and reads something at face value like the above passages and or Matthew 26:17 without the help of the Spirit teaching them, then one is only going to see errors in God's Word where none really exist.
1 Thessalonians 2:13
"For this cause also thank we God without ceasing, because, when ye received the word of God which ye heard of us, ye received it not as the word of men, but as it is in truth, the word of God, which effectually worketh also in you that believe."
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Let's look at that again shall we?
Psalm 12:6
"The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times."
Silver is second to Gold and earth beneath heaven, so the words of the LORD, although pure, are not divinely inspired or properly interpreted as would have been in association to GOD.
rev...
I counsel thee to buy of me gold tried in the fire, that thou mayest be rich; and white raiment, that thou mayest be clothed, and that the shame of thy nakedness do not appear; and anoint thine eyes with eyesalve, that thou mayest see.
Psalm 119:139-140
"My zeal hath consumed me, because mine enemies have forgotten thy words. Thy word is very pure: therefore thy servant loveth it."
MY MINE and ME are pronouns... My is genitive case and ME is Oblique case MINE is possessive case. THY is the corresponding genitive case to MY, THEE is corresponding oblique case to ME, and THINE is corresponding possessive case to MINE. MINE and THINE are only used before or after a vowel and THINE is used when showing possessions of THEE as well as MINE showing possession of ME which are oblique case (MINE,ME), however here MINE is used prior to a noun and after a conjunction which is improper and along side of THY "because mine enemies have forgotten thy words" it should read "MY enemies have forgotten thy words" but if it did read that way then there would be no point in the psalm now would there...oh an example would be just like the revelation verse I posted above...I counsel thee to buy of me gold tried in the fire, that thou mayest be rich; and white raiment, that thou mayest be clothed, and that the shame of thy nakedness do not appear; and anoint thine eyes with eyesalve, that thou mayest see.
Proverbs 30:5
"Every word of God is pure: he is a shield unto them that put their trust in him."
Hey look here reader if you know GOD you will know that his words are pure and when they are not you are to recognize that....hint hint hint not inspired by GOD
that's MINE two cents
Psalm 12:6
"The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times."
Silver is second to Gold and earth beneath heaven, so the words of the LORD, although pure, are not divinely inspired or properly interpreted as would have been in association to GOD.
rev...
I counsel thee to buy of me gold tried in the fire, that thou mayest be rich; and white raiment, that thou mayest be clothed, and that the shame of thy nakedness do not appear; and anoint thine eyes with eyesalve, that thou mayest see.
Psalm 119:139-140
"My zeal hath consumed me, because mine enemies have forgotten thy words. Thy word is very pure: therefore thy servant loveth it."
MY MINE and ME are pronouns... My is genitive case and ME is Oblique case MINE is possessive case. THY is the corresponding genitive case to MY, THEE is corresponding oblique case to ME, and THINE is corresponding possessive case to MINE. MINE and THINE are only used before or after a vowel and THINE is used when showing possessions of THEE as well as MINE showing possession of ME which are oblique case (MINE,ME), however here MINE is used prior to a noun and after a conjunction which is improper and along side of THY "because mine enemies have forgotten thy words" it should read "MY enemies have forgotten thy words" but if it did read that way then there would be no point in the psalm now would there...oh an example would be just like the revelation verse I posted above...I counsel thee to buy of me gold tried in the fire, that thou mayest be rich; and white raiment, that thou mayest be clothed, and that the shame of thy nakedness do not appear; and anoint thine eyes with eyesalve, that thou mayest see.
Proverbs 30:5
"Every word of God is pure: he is a shield unto them that put their trust in him."
Hey look here reader if you know GOD you will know that his words are pure and when they are not you are to recognize that....hint hint hint not inspired by GOD
that's MINE two cents
The Sixth Hour in John 19:14 is not supposed contradiction that others like to point out in God's Word.
In the Scriptures, we read that Jesus is crucified the third hour (Which is 9:00AM); And later we discover that at the sixth hour (12 noon) there was a darkness in the sky while Jesus was on the cross. Yet John 19:14 says that when Jesus is being convicted, it is the sixth hour. Is this really the sixth hour (12 noon)?
Well, many have attempted to explain that the sixth hour in John 19:14 is speaking about Roman time (6:00AM) when day light first breaks. Some believe that that John 19:14 speaks about the six hour at night (Midnight). However, we realize that this cannot be because Luke 22:66 makes it clear that it was already day when he is on trial with the council of high priests before Jesus faces Pilate a second time whereby he would have been convicted at the sixth hour. If this was Roman time (6:00AM), then sunrise would have to be at 1:00AM or 2:00AM so that it could be day by the time Jesus was at the council in Luke 22:66. So neither Roman time or a Midnight reckoning doesn't make any sense. So how do we reconcile this passage? Well, others have tried to explain that this sixth hour is from the time Jesus was arrested to his conviction. Others have tried to say that the sixth hour is the total amount of time he was on trial. But there is no actual verse explaining this, though. So is there an error in the Scriptures? Never!
John 19:14 is absolutely 100% true. How so? Well, the obvious fact was starring me in the face when I was reading a chronology with John 19:14 put in it's proper place. See, the Bible is not written chronologically. Things that are written are not always put in a neat linear narrative that we are accustomed to reading with other written works. In other words, the Bible has what I would like to call, "Inserted Unexplained Flash Backs or Flash Forwards" within it.
In fact, try reading John 19 verses 12-15 without verse 14.
In other words, if verse 14 was not there, it does not really effect the surrounding context. In fact, the crowd seems to ignore Pilate when he says "Behold your king" because they just say, "Crucify him." It is only when Pilate asks the question about him being their king is when they answer him. So the verse is what I would like to call, an "Inserted Unexplained Flash Forward." It was a future event that was tied into the present moment to make a point. But if you want to place verse 14 in John 19 in a somewhat more chronological fashion, it should be read after verse 22 (John 19:22).
In other words, when the darkness came in the sky at the sixth hour noon time (With Jesus having already been on the cross), Pilate had said, "Behold your king!" which ties in the point trying to be made in John 19:12-15.
It is important to note that the GW Bible Translation (i.e. God's Word Translation) changes John 19:14 to six o'clock in the morning. Yet the KJV accurately renders this passage like it should be.
In the Scriptures, we read that Jesus is crucified the third hour (Which is 9:00AM); And later we discover that at the sixth hour (12 noon) there was a darkness in the sky while Jesus was on the cross. Yet John 19:14 says that when Jesus is being convicted, it is the sixth hour. Is this really the sixth hour (12 noon)?
Well, many have attempted to explain that the sixth hour in John 19:14 is speaking about Roman time (6:00AM) when day light first breaks. Some believe that that John 19:14 speaks about the six hour at night (Midnight). However, we realize that this cannot be because Luke 22:66 makes it clear that it was already day when he is on trial with the council of high priests before Jesus faces Pilate a second time whereby he would have been convicted at the sixth hour. If this was Roman time (6:00AM), then sunrise would have to be at 1:00AM or 2:00AM so that it could be day by the time Jesus was at the council in Luke 22:66. So neither Roman time or a Midnight reckoning doesn't make any sense. So how do we reconcile this passage? Well, others have tried to explain that this sixth hour is from the time Jesus was arrested to his conviction. Others have tried to say that the sixth hour is the total amount of time he was on trial. But there is no actual verse explaining this, though. So is there an error in the Scriptures? Never!
John 19:14 is absolutely 100% true. How so? Well, the obvious fact was starring me in the face when I was reading a chronology with John 19:14 put in it's proper place. See, the Bible is not written chronologically. Things that are written are not always put in a neat linear narrative that we are accustomed to reading with other written works. In other words, the Bible has what I would like to call, "Inserted Unexplained Flash Backs or Flash Forwards" within it.
In fact, try reading John 19 verses 12-15 without verse 14.
In other words, if verse 14 was not there, it does not really effect the surrounding context. In fact, the crowd seems to ignore Pilate when he says "Behold your king" because they just say, "Crucify him." It is only when Pilate asks the question about him being their king is when they answer him. So the verse is what I would like to call, an "Inserted Unexplained Flash Forward." It was a future event that was tied into the present moment to make a point. But if you want to place verse 14 in John 19 in a somewhat more chronological fashion, it should be read after verse 22 (John 19:22).
In other words, when the darkness came in the sky at the sixth hour noon time (With Jesus having already been on the cross), Pilate had said, "Behold your king!" which ties in the point trying to be made in John 19:12-15.
It is important to note that the GW Bible Translation (i.e. God's Word Translation) changes John 19:14 to six o'clock in the morning. Yet the KJV accurately renders this passage like it should be.
Are there other examples of this in Scripture?
Yes, absolutely!
In Matthew 28:2-4 is a related flashback (With the guards and the angel); It is an interruption in the present moment of a quick description of a past event. For Mark 16:3-4 makes it clear that the women talked about how they would roll the stone away, but when they arrived, the stone was already rolled away. Then Mark 16:5 continues and says they found the angel sitting inside already. But Matthew 28:2-4 says there was a great earthquake and that an angel came down from heaven and rolled the stone away. Matthew 28:4 lets us know WHO this interrupting event in Matthew 28:2-4 relates to. It is speaking in relation to the keepers or the guards of Jesus tomb and their quick story. So verses 2-4 is a flashback with the guards (And not the women). These two events are merely related or tied to one another because of the appearance of the angel at the empty tomb.
Also, in Matthew 27:52-53 (Which is another event) is actually a flash forward or a description of a future event. For these two verses also interrupt up the current present event of the crucifixion and it describes a future event of how certain Old Testament saints would rise out of their graves after Jesus' resurrection.
For I believe that the time of when certain OT saints are risen out of their graves is when the 2nd Earthquake hits and when the stone is rolled away by the angel revealing an already empty tomb to the guards at night. For I believe Jesus was risen at 3:00PM on Saturday within the tomb, which would be 72 hours (or 3 days and 3 nights) exactly from the time He died at 3:00PM on Wednesday. For Jesus was in the heart of the Earth or Abraham's bosom (Paradise) with the thief on the cross. For Jesus said to the thief that He would be with him that very day in Paradise.
Anyways, hopefully this should demonstrate to you that the Bible has "Inserted Unexplained Flash Backs or Flash Forwards" within it. Therefore realizing this fact, it helps us to reconcile various difficult passages such as the sixth hour in John 19:14.
Yes, absolutely!
In Matthew 28:2-4 is a related flashback (With the guards and the angel); It is an interruption in the present moment of a quick description of a past event. For Mark 16:3-4 makes it clear that the women talked about how they would roll the stone away, but when they arrived, the stone was already rolled away. Then Mark 16:5 continues and says they found the angel sitting inside already. But Matthew 28:2-4 says there was a great earthquake and that an angel came down from heaven and rolled the stone away. Matthew 28:4 lets us know WHO this interrupting event in Matthew 28:2-4 relates to. It is speaking in relation to the keepers or the guards of Jesus tomb and their quick story. So verses 2-4 is a flashback with the guards (And not the women). These two events are merely related or tied to one another because of the appearance of the angel at the empty tomb.
Also, in Matthew 27:52-53 (Which is another event) is actually a flash forward or a description of a future event. For these two verses also interrupt up the current present event of the crucifixion and it describes a future event of how certain Old Testament saints would rise out of their graves after Jesus' resurrection.
For I believe that the time of when certain OT saints are risen out of their graves is when the 2nd Earthquake hits and when the stone is rolled away by the angel revealing an already empty tomb to the guards at night. For I believe Jesus was risen at 3:00PM on Saturday within the tomb, which would be 72 hours (or 3 days and 3 nights) exactly from the time He died at 3:00PM on Wednesday. For Jesus was in the heart of the Earth or Abraham's bosom (Paradise) with the thief on the cross. For Jesus said to the thief that He would be with him that very day in Paradise.
Anyways, hopefully this should demonstrate to you that the Bible has "Inserted Unexplained Flash Backs or Flash Forwards" within it. Therefore realizing this fact, it helps us to reconcile various difficult passages such as the sixth hour in John 19:14.
In other words, if we were to replace verse 14 with Mark 15:12-13 in John 19:12-15 and split verse 15 (to match it), it would read like this:
(Jn v. 12):
And from thenceforth Pilate sought to release him: but the Jews cried out, saying,
(Jn v. 13): When Pilate therefore heard that saying, he brought Jesus forth, and sat down in the judgment seat in a place that is called the Pavement, but in the Hebrew, Gabbatha.
(Jn v. 15a): But they cried out,
(Mk v. 12): And Pilate answered and said again unto them,
(Mk v. 13): And they cried out again,
(Jn v. 15b): Pilate saith unto them,
The chief priests answered,
(John 19:12-15a) (Mark 15:12-13) (John 19:15b).
(Jn v. 12):
And from thenceforth Pilate sought to release him: but the Jews cried out, saying,
"If thou let this man go, thou art not Caesar's friend: whosoever maketh himself a king speaketh against Caesar."
(Jn v. 13): When Pilate therefore heard that saying, he brought Jesus forth, and sat down in the judgment seat in a place that is called the Pavement, but in the Hebrew, Gabbatha.
(Jn v. 15a): But they cried out,
"Away with him, away with him, crucify him."
(Mk v. 12): And Pilate answered and said again unto them,
"What will ye then that I shall do unto him whom ye call the King of the Jews?"
(Mk v. 13): And they cried out again,
"Crucify him."
(Jn v. 15b): Pilate saith unto them,
"Shall I crucify your King?"
The chief priests answered,
"We have no king but Caesar."
(John 19:12-15a) (Mark 15:12-13) (John 19:15b).
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And here is verse 14 in the closest chronological order within John chapter 19.
"And Pilate wrote a title, and put it on the cross. And the writing was, JESUS OF NAZARETH THE KING OF THE JEWS. This title then read many of the Jews: for the place where Jesus was crucified was nigh to the city: and it was written in Hebrew, and Greek, and Latin. Then said the chief priests of the Jews to Pilate, Write not, The King of the Jews; but that he said, I am King of the Jews. Pilate answered, What I have written I have written." (John 19:19-22).
"And it was the preparation of the passover, and about the sixth hour: and he saith unto the Jews, Behold your King!" (John 19:14).
The mention of the sixth hour in John 19:14 is a "place marker", or "goal post" in letting us know where and when Pilate was when he said, "Behold your King!" to the Jews. In fact, when you read John 19:14 after John 19:22 it ties up the conversation Pilate had with the Jews about the inscription sign. Pilate was sticking it to them with the words, "Behold your King" after he got them upset about not changing the inscription on the sign. Whether this sign was placed earlier or later in the day when Jesus was on the cross is of no consequence. The point is that the Jews were already upset with Pilate and he just made them even more upset by saying those words while Jesus was on the cross. For it seems odd that the crowd ignored Pilate when he said, "Behold your king!"
We also get the impression that Pilate is not a bad guy if one is reading quickly thru the Bible because he seemed to not want to condemn Jesus. But if one were to realize that Pilate was mocking the suffering of our Savior so as to anger the Jews even more, He really was not a nice man under his so called righteousness or sense of justice.
"And Pilate wrote a title, and put it on the cross. And the writing was, JESUS OF NAZARETH THE KING OF THE JEWS. This title then read many of the Jews: for the place where Jesus was crucified was nigh to the city: and it was written in Hebrew, and Greek, and Latin. Then said the chief priests of the Jews to Pilate, Write not, The King of the Jews; but that he said, I am King of the Jews. Pilate answered, What I have written I have written." (John 19:19-22).
"And it was the preparation of the passover, and about the sixth hour: and he saith unto the Jews, Behold your King!" (John 19:14).
The mention of the sixth hour in John 19:14 is a "place marker", or "goal post" in letting us know where and when Pilate was when he said, "Behold your King!" to the Jews. In fact, when you read John 19:14 after John 19:22 it ties up the conversation Pilate had with the Jews about the inscription sign. Pilate was sticking it to them with the words, "Behold your King" after he got them upset about not changing the inscription on the sign. Whether this sign was placed earlier or later in the day when Jesus was on the cross is of no consequence. The point is that the Jews were already upset with Pilate and he just made them even more upset by saying those words while Jesus was on the cross. For it seems odd that the crowd ignored Pilate when he said, "Behold your king!"
We also get the impression that Pilate is not a bad guy if one is reading quickly thru the Bible because he seemed to not want to condemn Jesus. But if one were to realize that Pilate was mocking the suffering of our Savior so as to anger the Jews even more, He really was not a nice man under his so called righteousness or sense of justice.