I have written extensively on this, using the Greek. I am a pastor, and I have been a chaplain. I preach and teach in my church, although I am not an elder. We have women elders, and they do a fine job.
I think you are looking for something that positively says women can be elders. I don't think there is anything like that. However, in 1 Timothy 3, there is a problem with the translations.
"Likewise also their wives must be dignified, not slanderous, temperate, faithful in every respect." 1 Tim. 3:11 NET
The issue causing the problem, is that the same word for "wife" can also be "woman" in Greek. That is the word gunaikas, or γυναῖκας. Here is the Greek:
"γυναῖκας ὡσαύτως σεμνάς, μὴ διαβόλους, νηφαλίους, πιστὰς ἐν πᾶσιν." 1 Tim. 3:11 Greek
There is no pronoun "their" in the passage at all. It just says, "women, like wise," or "wives, likewise."
So, here is another way you can say it:
"In the same way, the womenare to be worthy of respect, not malicious talkers but temperate and trustworthy in everything." 1 Tim. 3:11 NIV
So, is Timothy talking to women separately who are elders/deacons, or is he talking to "wives"? I think for me, the fact that Paul talks about ministry with women, that he mentioned Prisca's name twice before her husband Apollo, meaning she was more important, and the fact that the Bible talks about women in authority like Deborah, Esther who saved her people, thus preserving the line from which the Messiah would come, the way Matthew, a Jew, includes 4 women in his genealogy of Jesus, the prophetic daughters of Phillip (Acts 21:9) and big exegetical issues with verses like 1 Tim. 2:12 means that God uses anyone who is willing, for ministry, and that includes being elders.
"Women should remain silent in the churches. They are not allowed to speak, but must be in submission, as the law says." 1 Cor. 14:34
Here is another verse which is wrongly interpreted. Many people think the above verse confirms women should not speak in church, as the law says. But what law? There is no such law. So, is Paul quoting someone, with reference to women who were out of hand? Because, there simply is no such law, and I believe that Paul was inspired. But, since Corinthians was a series of letters Paul wrote to the church in Corinth,replying to some issues there, it is most possible Paul was quoting them, and then showing them that women who were disturbing the congregation, maybe shouting out, needed to go home to ask their husbands. Perhaps he was even being sarcastic? "As the law says" is really a sign that something else is going on here.
And do remember, women were largely uneducated, and the rich women were sheltered, and in Corinth, which was a port town, many of the poorer women may have been temple prositutes. In fact, to "corinthianize" meant to be promiscuous. So, those women, certainly were not capable of leading a congregation, at least in the early years after the church was started.
As an eglatarian, I have read many books, and written papers on women in ministry with my viewpoint being that women can most certainly be in ministry. When Paul wrote Gal. 3:28, he wanted to make it clear that neither genes nor social standing make one better in the Kingdom of God.
"There is neither Jew nor Gentile, neither slave nor free, nor is there male and female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus." Gal. 3:28
And as for those people who get into this fixed order, that men are above women, it is really grasping at straws, considering that order was established after the Fall. Since Christ redeemed us from the fall, clearly, even a Gentile, woman slave was as good as any male with impeccable credentials, there is no such order for ministry. (Of course, women should submit to their husbands!)
PS If you want me to dig out my information on 1 Tim. 2:12, let me know.
