Here is the next paragraph of the source you used (without providing the source):
"In Christian circles, a number of different attempts were made over the centuries to subdivide the biblical books into smaller pieces for easier reference to specific passages, especially in the European schools of the late Middle Ages and early Renaissance. The system of chapters used today is usually credited to Stephen Langton, who served as Archbishop of Canterbury in the early 1200s, and their first use was in copies of the Latin
Vulgate version. A 14th-century rabbi, Solomon ben Ishmael, seems to have adapted Langton’s chapter divisions for use in Hebrew Bibles, complementing the existing verse divisions in the
Masoretic Text.
New Testament verse divisions seem to have been introduced by Robert Estienne in the 1550s."
Chris Heard, "Why Are Bible Chapters and Verses Numbered?", n.p. [cited 3 Mar 2018]. Online:
https://www.bibleodyssey.org:443/en/tools/bible-basics/why-are-bible-chapters-and-verses-numbered
Our references differ in some details, but not in terms of my point: that the numbering did not exist until well after 1000 AD. Implying that I am ignorant is quite unnecessary. Asserting that one source is incorrect merely on the basis of difference with another source is logically untenable.