PROOF: Judeo-Christian Bible Inspired by God

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Oct 13, 2012
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#1
ALTER2EGO -to- EVERYONE:

While there are many forms of religions with their own religious books, what sets the Judeo-Christian apart from all other bibles and religious books is the fact that it contains information that was way ahead of its time (eg. the shape of the earth, the fact that the earth hangs in mid-space).

Health codes that were part of the Mosaic Law protected the ancient Israelites from diseases that devastated neighboring pagan nations. Therefore, the erroneous statement often made by atheists, that the Israelites copied their Bible writings from other cultures, is ludicrous. If that were the case, why were people in surrounding nations dropping dead from diseases that the Israelites AVOIDED--as a direct result of the Israelites observing the Mosaic Law found in the Judeo-Christian Bible? (That's a rhetorical question, by the way.)


What makes the Bible convincingly the inspired Word of God is the accurate fulfillment of almost 2,000 prophecies, some of them written centuries before their fulfillment. It is noteworthy that secular history and archeology confirm many of these prophecies. Since neither secular history nor archeology are in any way connected with the Bible, no one can effectively argue that the Bible is being used to prove the Bible (circular argument).
 
Oct 13, 2012
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#2
Hello Everyone,

I have recently finished a round-trip tour of the Bible, and have discovered some obvious mistakes. The mistakes are nothing more than penmanship, and authorship errors. However, due to the large quantity I have found, I have come to the conclusion that the Bible can not be the infallible Word of God. Emphasis is on "infallible". I will demonstrate a few to show my findings. These are from my KJV. I use a facsimile of the 1611 KJV to ensure they are also similar. That allows me to rule out this particular Bible, as the reason for the mistake.

Some are simple numerical issues. Forget a number here, and one there.

1 Kings 4:26 "And Solomon had forty thousand stalls of horses for his chariots, and twelve thousand horseman."
2 Chronicles 9:25 "And Solomon had four thousand stalls for horses and chariots, and twelve thousand horesman."

Some are about how to live.

Proverbs 26:4-5 "Answer not a fool according to his folly, lest thou also be like unto him. Answer a fool according to his folly, lest he be wise in his conciet."

Some are about our faith.

2 Kings 2:11 "And it came to pass, as they still went on, and talked, that, behold, there appeared a chariot of fire, and horses of fire, and parted them both asunder; and Elijah went up by a whirlwind into heaven."

John 3:13 "And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven."
ALTER2EGO -to- ASTALLIA:
I decided to post this response in my thread as it contains details I would like to keep here.



The verse at 2 Kings 2:11 where it says "Elijah went up by a whirlwind into heaven" does not contradict what is said at John 3:13 for two reasons:

1. The expression "into heaven" simply indicates Elijah was carried towards the heavens, beyond where Elisah (who was with him at the time) could see him. The same can be said for the space shuttle or even a regular airplane when it disappears from human vision. So the expression "into heaven" is considered figurative of speech where the Prophet Elijah is concerned. Why so? Because the Bible makes it clear that flesh and blood cannot survive in heaven, as follows:

"However, this I say, brothers, that flesh and blood cannot inherit God's kingdom, neither does corruption inherit incorruption." (1 Corinthians 15:50)



2. The Prophet Elijah would have had to literally die and be resurrected into a spirit person in order to abide in heaven. Several years after the incident in which he disappeared in the whirlwind, he was still alive on earth. Proof of this is that he served as prophet to the king of Judah after the episode with the whirlwind. In other words, Elijah was simply transferred to another location on earth during the whirlwind episode.
 
Oct 13, 2012
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#3
Just wondering...did the New World Translation remove:

the word Lord from these verses?

Matthew 13:51, Mark 9:24, Mark 11:10, Luke 9:57, Luke 23:42, Acts 7:30, Romans 1:3, Romans 6:11, 1 Corinthians 10:28, 1 Corinthians 15:47, 2 Corinthians 4:10, Galatians 6:17, Ephesians 3:14, Colossians 1:2, 1 Timothy 1:1, 1 Timothy 5:21, 2 Timothy 4:1, 2 John 1:3
ALTER2EGO -to- ABIDING:
Why are you making an issue of the word "Lord" being missing from those particular verses in the New World Translation, while you conveniently neglect to mention that it's also missing from several other Bibles, including the following?

1. New Living Translation
2. English Standard Version
3. New American Standard Bible
4. International Standard Version
5. American Standard Version
6. English Revised Version
7. Weymouth New Testament



The word "Lord" is also missing from several of the above-listed verses in the following Bible versions.

1. Douay-Rheims Bible
2. New International Version
 
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Oct 13, 2012
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#4
[FONT=&quot]
[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Just wondering...did the New World Translation remove:

And the word Jesus from these verses?:

Matthew 8:29, Matthew 16:20, Romans 1:3, Romans 15:8, 1 Corinthians 16:22, 2 Corinthians 4:6, 2 Corinthians 5:18, Galatians 6:15, Ephesians 3:9, Ephesians 3:14, Colossians 1:2, Colossians 1:28, 2 Timothy 4:22, 1 Peter 5:10, 1 Peter 5:14
[/FONT]ALTER2EGO -to- ABIDING:
The word "Jesus" is missing from the same Bibles I listed above at Post 3. Why are you making an issue of it only because it's missing from the New World Translation?
[FONT=&quot]



[/FONT][FONT=&quot]Just wondering...did the New World Translation remove:

And the word Christ from these verses?:

Luke 4:41, John 4:42, John 6:69, Acts 2:30, Acts 15:11, Acts 16:31, Acts 20:21, Romans 1:3, Romans 1:16, Romans 14:10, 1 Corinthians 5:4, 1 Corinthians 9:1, 1 Corinthians 16:22, 1 Corinthians 16:23, 2 Corinthians 11:31, Galatians 3:17, Galatians 4:7, Galatians 6:15, Ephesians 3:9, Ephesians 3:14, Philippians 4:13, 1 Thessalonians 2:19, 1 Thessalonians 3:11, 1 Thessalonians 3:13, 2 Thessalonians 1:8, 1 Timothy 2:7, 2 Timothy 4:22, Hebrews 3:1, 1 John 1:7, 1 John 4:3, Revelation 1:9, Revelation 12:17
[/FONT]ALTER2EGO -to- ABIDING:
The word "Christ" is missing from the same Bibles I listed above at Post 3. Once again, why are you making an issue of it only because it's missing from the New World Translation?
[FONT=&quot]

[/FONT]
 
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loveme1

Senior Member
Oct 30, 2011
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#5
Why is it missing from these Bibles?
 
May 29, 2012
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#6
It doesn't matter what name is in what bible. All of them will burn and pass away! He now has a name WHICH NO MAN KNOWS and is CALLED THE WORD OF GOD by ALL.
 
Oct 13, 2012
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#7
Just wondering...did the New World Translation remove:

And simply removed these verses?:

Matthew 17:21, Matthew 18:11, Matthew 23:14, Mark 7:16, Mark 9:44, Mark 9:46, Mark 11:26, Mark 15:28, Luke 17:36, Luke 23:17, John 5:4, Acts 8:37, Acts 15:34, Acts 24:7, Acts 28:29, Romans 16:24
ALTER2EGO -to- ABIDING:
The reason why the 40 verses of scriptures you listed here are not in the New World Translation (beginning with Matthew 17:21 all the way through to Romans 16:24) is because they are all fabrications. They did not belong in the Bible from the get-go.

If you think the Watchtower Society/Jehovah's Witnesses are the only ones that removed the above fabricated verses, let me enlighten you. The New International Version, the New American Standard, the New Living Translation, and several other modern English translations have removed them. The King James Version and several other Bibles have refused to remove the fabrications. The irony is that many people consider the King James Version to be the most reliable Bible version.



Below is the weblink where you will see info regarding the 40 fabricated verses being removed from several other Bibles.


Which Bible verses did the NIV delete?
 
A

Abiding

Guest
#8
Good point I spose i asked you because your here
Im pretty much an equal opportunity questioner.
 
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loveme1

Senior Member
Oct 30, 2011
8,086
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#9
ALTER2EGO -to- ABIDING:
The reason why the 40 verses of scriptures you listed here are not in the New World Translation (beginning with Matthew 17:21 all the way through to Romans 16:24) is because they are all fabrications. They did not belong in the Bible from the get-go.

If you think the Watchtower Society/Jehovah's Witnesses are the only ones that removed the above fabricated verses, let me enlighten you. The New International Version, the New American Standard, the New Living Translation, and several other modern English translations have removed them. The King James Version and several other Bibles have refused to remove the fabrications. The irony is that many people consider the King James Version to be the most reliable Bible version.



Below is the weblink where you will see info regarding the 40 fabricated verses being removed from several other Bibles.

Which Bible verses did the NIV delete?

Who decided they were "fabricated"?
 

loveme1

Senior Member
Oct 30, 2011
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#10
Anyone who does not trust in Yahvah God and Yahshua the Messiah will be deleting and re-wording scripture to suit themselves until Kingdom come, only to realize Yahvah God never needed their help creating a "government" for him but offered them Salvation through Yahshua the Messiah.

Yahvah God is Almighty and powerful and it is man that needs him, not the other way round.

If you want to witness for Yahvah God then stop listening to "man" and start listening to the Almighty himself.

Accept Yahshua the Messiah into your heart to be reconciled with Yahvah God and be lead by the Spirit in the path of Righteousness.
 
Oct 13, 2012
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#11
ALTER2EGO -to- ABIDING:
The reason why the 40 verses of scriptures you listed here are not in the New World Translation (beginning with Matthew 17:21 all the way through to Romans 16:24) is because they are all fabrications. They did not belong in the Bible from the get-go.

If you think the Watchtower Society/Jehovah's Witnesses are the only ones that removed the above fabricated verses, let me enlighten you. The New International Version, the New American Standard, the New Living Translation, and several other modern English translations have removed them. The King James Version and several other Bibles have refused to remove the fabrications. The irony is that many people consider the King James Version to be the most reliable Bible version.

Below is the weblink where you will see info regarding the 40 fabricated verses being removed from several other Bibles.


Which Bible verses did the NIV delete?
Who decided they were "fabricated"?
ALTER2EGO -to- LOVE ME 1:
Most Bible scholars came to that conclusion when older Bible manuscripts of the original writings were found that do not contain the fabricated verses. These older manuscript predate the manuscripts from which the King James Version is based upon. Below is what one source had to say on the matter.
The weblink to the source is directly below the quotation.

Question: "Why are the newer translations of the Bible missing verses?"

The answer is that the translators did not believe these verses should have been in the Bible to begin with. Since the KJV was translated in A.D. 1611, many Biblical manuscripts have been discovered that are older and more accurate than the manuscripts the KJV was based on. When Bible scholars researched through these manuscripts, they discovered some differences. It seems that over the course of 1500 years, some words, phrases, and even sentences were added to the Bible (either intentionally or accidentally). The verses mentioned above are simply not found in the oldest and most reliable manuscripts. So, the newer translations remove these verses or place them in footnotes or in the margin because they do not truly belong in the Bible.
Why are the newer translations of the Bible missing verses?
 

loveme1

Senior Member
Oct 30, 2011
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#12
Exactly listening to men who make these claims.......

Do these claims not benefit your religions beliefs hence why they are removed.

I will listen to the Holy Spirit who guides me through the Bible.

I will look at what passages you believe fabricated and seek understanding to come back and share with you in good time.
 

loveme1

Senior Member
Oct 30, 2011
8,086
190
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#13
Now you said:

ALTER2EGO -to- LOVE ME 1:
Most Bible scholars came to that conclusion when older Bible manuscripts of the original writings were found that do not contain the fabricated verses. These older manuscript predate the manuscripts from which the King James Version is based upon. Below is what one source had to say on the matter. The weblink to the source is directly below the quotation.

My Bible says:

Matthew 23


14 Woe unto you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! for ye devour widows' houses, and for a pretence make long prayer: therefore ye shall receive the greater damnation.

Your Bible does not contain this?

Is it not convenient that the "scholars" would remove a Woe that would implicate them?
 
A

Ariel82

Guest
#14
yep and the Bible tells us even in the time of Paul's teaching there were false gospels out there trying to pervert God's truth.

just because its older doesn't mean its truer. Eygptians' have older paper with their religion on it. doesn't make it true.
 
P

psychomom

Guest
#15
ALTER2EGO -to- ABIDING:
The reason why the 40 verses of scriptures you listed here are not in the New World Translation (beginning with Matthew 17:21 all the way through to Romans 16:24) is because they are all fabrications. They did not belong in the Bible from the get-go.

If you think the Watchtower Society/Jehovah's Witnesses are the only ones that removed the above fabricated verses, let me enlighten you. The New International Version, the New American Standard, the New Living Translation, and several other modern English translations have removed them. The King James Version and several other Bibles have refused to remove the fabrications. The irony is that many people consider the King James Version to be the most reliable Bible version.



Below is the weblink where you will see info regarding the 40 fabricated verses being removed from several other Bibles.


Which Bible verses did the NIV delete?

Not to be argumentative, but just as a point of fact...
the translation I read for pleasure is the NASB, and every single verse listed above is there in my New American Standard Bible. (I just checked each one)
I can't speak to the other translations, but I just wanted to clarify that. :)
-ellie
 
Oct 13, 2012
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#16
Not to be argumentative, but just as a point of fact...
the translation I read for pleasure is the NASB, and every single verse listed above is there in my New American Standard Bible. (I just checked each one)
I can't speak to the other translations, but I just wanted to clarify that.
:)
-ellie
ALTER2EGO -to- PSYCHOMOM:
Perhaps you have an older version of the NASB. The source from which I got the info stated the 40 fabricated verses were no longer in the newer version of the NASB.

After you alerted me (by your above post) that the source I used was wrong about NASB, I decided to cross-check on all of the 40 fabricated verses of scriptures to see which of the popular Bibles actually removed them. Below is what I came up with:


Matthew 17:21 --
"Howbeit this kind goeth not out but by prayer and fasting."


Matthew 18:11 --
"For the Son of man is come to save that which was lost."


Matthew 23:14 --
"Woe unto you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! for ye devour widows' houses, and for a pretence make long prayer: therefore ye shall receive the greater damnation."


Mark 7:16 --
"If any man have ears to hear, let him hear."


Mark 9:44 --
"Where their worm dieth not, and the fire is not quenched."


Mark 9:46 --
"Where their worm dieth not, and the fire is not quenched."


Mark 11:26 --
"But if ye do not forgive, neither will your Father which is in heaven forgive your trespasses."


Mark 15:28 --
"And the scripture was fulfilled, which saith, And he was numbered with the transgressors."

Luke 17:36 --
"Two men shall be in the field; the one shall be taken, and the other left."


Luke 23:17 --
"(For of necessity he must release one unto them at the feast.)"


John 5:4 --
"For an angel went down at a certain season into the pool, and troubled the water: whosoever then first after the troubling of the water stepped in was made whole of whatsoever disease he had."


Acts 8:37 --
"And Philip said, If thou believest with all thine heart, thou mayest. And he answered and said, I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God."


Acts 15:34 --
"Notwithstanding it pleased Silas to abide there still."


Acts 24:7 --
"But the chief captain Lysias came upon us, and with great violence took him away out of our hands,"


Acts 28:29 --
"And when he had said these words, the Jews departed, and had great reasoning among themselves."


Romans 16:24 --
"The grace of our Lord Jesus Christ be with you all. Amen."


All of the above verses have been removed from the following Bibles, with two exceptions:

1. New World Translation (NWT)
2. New International Version (NIV)
3. New Living Translation (NLT)
4. English Standard Version (ESV)
5. English Revised Version (ERV)
6. God's Word Translation (GWT)
7. Weymouth New Testament (WNT)


The two exceptions are as follows:

1. Mark 7:16 is still in God's Word Translation (the other verses listed above were removed, however)

2. Matthew 17:21 is still in Weymouth New Testament (but all of the other verses listed above were removed)





I John 5:7 – Has been corrected in the New World Translation and most other Bibles. The four Bibles listed below have all refused to correct the fabrication seen at 1 John 5:7.

1. King James Version
2. Douay-Rheims Bible
3. Webster's Bible Translation
4. Young's Literal Translation



Mark 16:9-20 (all 12 verses) – The New Word Translation provides an appendix for these 12 verses because they are all fabrications.
 
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Oct 13, 2012
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#17
ALTER2EGO -to- EVERYONE:
Below is a conversation I've been having with an atheist at another website where I debate. This particular atheist downloaded 42 "Bible contradictions" from the online blog of another atheist and presented them as proof that the Bible contradicts itself. The "contradictions" are numbered 1 to 42. I have thus far debunked "contradictions" #1 through #18.

I thought fellow Christians would find this info useful in case you run into an atheist that presents you with the same verses that they claim are Bible contradictions. So from time to time, I will post the "contradictions" here, accompanied by my rebuttals. Below is "contradiction #1," followed by my rebuttal. Bible "contradictions" #2 and #3 will be posted separately.



Gospel Contradictions:

1) How many generations were there between Abraham to David? Matthew 1:17 lists fourteen generations. Matthew 1:2 lists thirteen generations.

ALTER2EGO -to- XCALIBER:

Exactly where does Matthew 1:2 say anything about thirteen generations? I read verse 2, and it said nothing about "generations" much less did it mention the number thirteen.


"Abraham became father to Isaac; Isaac became father to Jacob; Jacob became father to Judah and his brothers;" (Matthew 1:2)


Now, suppose you show me where anything in those expressions, quoted above, makes mention of "thirteen generations"? Maybe you should go back to the atheist blog from where you downloaded that wall of text (which you uploaded at Post #2 in this thread) and ask them which part of their personal delusion they saw a listing of 13 generations at Matthew 1:2.
 
Oct 13, 2012
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#18
2) Is Paul lying? In Acts 20:35 Paul told people "to remember the words of the Lord Jesus, how he said, 'It is more blessed to give than to receive.'" Since Jesus never made such a biblical statement, isn’t Paul guilty of deception?
ALTER2EGO -to- XCALIBER:
Paul was telling the truth when he summarized what Jesus Christ said. Jesus did indeed say the following:


"
{1} So he [Jesus Christ] summoned his twelve disciples and gave them authority over unclean spirits, in order to expel these and to cure every sort of disease and every sort of infirmity. {8} Cure sick people, raise up dead persons, make lepers clean, expel demons. You received free, give free." (Matthew 10:1, 8 -- the speaker was Jesus Christ)

~***~
 
Oct 13, 2012
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#19
3) When did the leper become not a leper? (Matthew 8:13 & 8:14) Jesus healed the leper before visiting the house. (Mark 1:29-30 & 1:40-42) Jesus healed the leper after visiting Simon Peter’s house.
ALTER2EGO -to- XCALIBER:
Matthew 8:13 is with reference to someone that was paralyzed and laid up at home. Matthew 8:5-6 gives the context where an army officer met Jesus and reported this to him.


"{5} When he [Jesus Christ] entered into Capernaum, an army officer came to him, entreating him {6} and saying: 'Sir, my manservant is laid up in the house with paralysis, being terribly tormented.' {13} Then Jesus said to the army officer: 'Go. Just as it has been your faith, so let it come to pass for you.' And the manservant was healed in that hour." (Matthew 8:5-6, 13)


Mark 1:40-42, on the other hand, is with reference to a leper.


"{40} There also came to him [Jesus] a leper, entreating him even on bended knee, saying to him: 'If you just want to, you can make me clean.' {41} At that he was moved with pity, and he stretched out his hand and touch him [the leper], and said to him: 'I want to. Be made clean.' {42} And immediately the leprosy vanished from him, and he became clean." (Mark 1:40-42)


QUESTION #1 to XCALIBER: Since when did someone with paralysis have the capacity to get on bended knees, as noted above at Mark 1:40?



QUESTION #2 to XCALIBER: Are you admitting to this forum that you can't tell the difference between an individual with paralysis and one with leprosy?
 
K

kenisyes

Guest
#20
ALTER2EGO -to- EVERYONE:

While there are many forms of religions with their own religious books, what sets the Judeo-Christian apart from all other bibles and religious books is the fact that it contains information that was way ahead of its time (eg. the shape of the earth, the fact that the earth hangs in mid-space).

Health codes that were part of the Mosaic Law protected the ancient Israelites from diseases that devastated neighboring pagan nations. Therefore, the erroneous statement often made by atheists, that the Israelites copied their Bible writings from other cultures, is ludicrous. If that were the case, why were people in surrounding nations dropping dead from diseases that the Israelites AVOIDED--as a direct result of the Israelites observing the Mosaic Law found in the Judeo-Christian Bible? (That's a rhetorical question, by the way.)


What makes the Bible convincingly the inspired Word of God is the accurate fulfillment of almost 2,000 prophecies, some of them written centuries before their fulfillment. It is noteworthy that secular history and archeology confirm many of these prophecies. Since neither secular history nor archeology are in any way connected with the Bible, no one can effectively argue that the Bible is being used to prove the Bible (circular argument).
After all the exchanges in that other thread, it's great to be able to say I agree with you 100%. Let me add that I know it's inspired by God because of the fruit that He and it together have produced in my own life.