Recent content by Cameron143

Before they were neutral with absolute freewill to choose as they saw fit. After, they were dead spiritually and Romans 3 is an accurate depiction. Morally, they are opposed to God.

Sure. But given the estate of fallen man, he does not seek God despite all that God has done to help him.

Adam and Eve before the fall or after?

There is a reason for this. While God has made overtures towards man, according to Romans 3:11 it is the disposition of fallen man not to seek after Him.

It's a good explanation. But the new covenant...the promised covenant was always in Christ. 2 Corinthians 5:19 says God was reconciling the world to Himself in Christ. It began with Adam through the promised seed. The plan of redemption was then revealed more fully through successive figures and...

I don't think the new covenant deals with nations, but individuals. But it's an interesting question. At some point the old covenant had to end and sanctions for Israel's failure applied. At the same time, a covenant of grace runs throughout the old testament period beginning in Genesis 3. So I...

There are plenty to be had. I've got a used one I don't use anymore.

That isn't what he is claiming. He believes only Christ is foreknown.

Speculation makes for a weak case as well.

You believe God predestined Jesus to be conformed to Himself?

Your whole post wreaked of pride. Do what you will with what I shared.

Wrong. Read the text. Whom He foreknew are the same as those being conformed to the image of His Son.

Yes, as odd as that may sound. I can't explain how that works, but I believe that is what scripture teaches.

Jesus isn't the only One foreknown of God. Read Romans 8:29. God isn't conforming Jesus to the image of Himself. He is taking those whom He foreknew in Christ and conforming them to the image of His Son.

What has this got to do with anything I wrote?