Only Jesus was a man who lived righteously (in perfect holy right standing with God). Right? The perfect man lived out. All of the Law was lived out in obedience. And this perfect, blameless, and holy life died and was the acceptable sacrifice to reconcile us back to relationship with God. It not only cancelled out our sin, but cleansed our conscience! Yay! We know that and live that (hopefully).
But my question is this. If only Jesus was the perfect righteous man, how come the OT refers to men at the time as being righteous? They are living separated from inner-union with God, why then are they referred to as blameless, upright, righteous, etc?
Some examples:
Gen 6:9 (Noah has also been referred to as a preacher of righteousness)
This is the account of Noah and his family. Noah was a righteous man, blameless among the people of his time, and he walked faithfully with God.
2 Peter 2:6-8 (I find this one interesting because, is it not saying that Lot is living with a cleaned conscience? Because when our conscience is cleaned, anything unrightesou violates it..we are made new. I find that interesting, because I believe that is what is said about Lot here)
Matthew 1:19 (Is this saying Joseph kept ALL of the law?)
Because Joseph her husband was faithful to the law, and yet[SUP][a][/SUP] did not want to expose her to public disgrace, he had in mind to divorce her quietly.
(the greek in the NIV version calls him righteous)
BLB - Mat 1: Gospel of Matthew 1 (Blue Letter Bible: NIV - New International Version)
2 Peter 2:6-8
if he condemned the cities of Sodom and Gomorrah by burning them to ashes, and made them an example of what is going to happen to the ungodly;[SUP]7 [/SUP]and if he rescued Lot, a righteous man, who was distressed by the depraved conduct of the lawless[SUP]8 [/SUP](for that righteous man, living among them day after day, was tormented in his righteous soul by the lawless deeds he saw and heard)
Job 1:1
There was a man in the land of Uz, whose name was Job; and that man was blameless and upright, and one who feared God and shunned evil.
Don't misinterpret my post or thoughts, I truly believe Jesus was hte only sacrifice! I'm just trying to understand how people in the OT could be referred to as righteous and blameless. What does that really mean if they have not received the revelation of Jesus? Or, maybe they have? (since Jesus and his death was seen and foretold before everything..)
But my question is this. If only Jesus was the perfect righteous man, how come the OT refers to men at the time as being righteous? They are living separated from inner-union with God, why then are they referred to as blameless, upright, righteous, etc?
Some examples:
Gen 6:9 (Noah has also been referred to as a preacher of righteousness)
This is the account of Noah and his family. Noah was a righteous man, blameless among the people of his time, and he walked faithfully with God.
2 Peter 2:6-8 (I find this one interesting because, is it not saying that Lot is living with a cleaned conscience? Because when our conscience is cleaned, anything unrightesou violates it..we are made new. I find that interesting, because I believe that is what is said about Lot here)
Matthew 1:19 (Is this saying Joseph kept ALL of the law?)
Because Joseph her husband was faithful to the law, and yet[SUP][a][/SUP] did not want to expose her to public disgrace, he had in mind to divorce her quietly.
(the greek in the NIV version calls him righteous)
BLB - Mat 1: Gospel of Matthew 1 (Blue Letter Bible: NIV - New International Version)
2 Peter 2:6-8
if he condemned the cities of Sodom and Gomorrah by burning them to ashes, and made them an example of what is going to happen to the ungodly;[SUP]7 [/SUP]and if he rescued Lot, a righteous man, who was distressed by the depraved conduct of the lawless[SUP]8 [/SUP](for that righteous man, living among them day after day, was tormented in his righteous soul by the lawless deeds he saw and heard)
Job 1:1
There was a man in the land of Uz, whose name was Job; and that man was blameless and upright, and one who feared God and shunned evil.
Don't misinterpret my post or thoughts, I truly believe Jesus was hte only sacrifice! I'm just trying to understand how people in the OT could be referred to as righteous and blameless. What does that really mean if they have not received the revelation of Jesus? Or, maybe they have? (since Jesus and his death was seen and foretold before everything..)
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