Let us set aside our -isms for the moment, & do inductive Bible study, considering all the scripture on this topic. I have begun reading thru the Bible & marking this subject now. I know that there are passages where God seems to violate man's will (tho so far as I know, there is never mentioned a faculty of "will" in the Bible). The king's heart is in the hand of the Lord, . . . He turns it withersoever He will, etc. God hardened Pharaoh's heart.
Does the "deadness" of the unregenerate man imply that man unregenerate cannot have faith, cannot trust Christ as Savior? Or has the Lord given every man the ability to trust (trust a wife, trust a man selling the Brooklyn Bridge, trust the floor not to collapse as he walks across it) or to distrust? Has God chosen to make certain people spiritually alive, then they have faith, then they trust the Savior? I think that generally those who hold this POV also maintain that this is a logical order, not temporal: the regeneration & faith occur at the same instant, but the regeneration causes the faith.
So should we rewrite the Bible, add new books to it, the Book of Yohn (Yawn) with 3:16b "that whosoever has everlasting life in Him should not perish but have faith." Yacks 16:31 "Be saved, and you shall believe on the Lord Jesus Christ"???
Objection: Why God has not made robots!
Rejoinder: Where does the Bible speak of robots (quote your robot verse or drop the objection)?
At any rate, I am gathering the data, reading from cover to cover & marking.
Prooftexts which pop up in my mind in advance:
Eph 2:8ff: "For by grace you have been saved through faith, and that not of yourselves, not of works lest anyone should boast."
I don't think we can use this one because in Greek faith is a feminine noun & that is a neuter pronoun, not agreeing in gender with faith (the pronoun should agree with its antecedent in gender).
Phil. 1:29 "because to you it hath been granted in the behalf of Christ, not only to believe on him, but also to suffer in his behalf:"
The real Bible: "ὅτι ὑμῖν ἐχαρίσθη τὸ ὑπὲρ Χριστοῦ, οὐ μόνον τὸ εἰς αὐτὸν πιστεύειν ἀλλὰ καὶ τὸ ὑπὲρ αὐτοῦ πάσχειν,"
Greek readers will note that the Greek word for Grace has the same root as the word for "it has been granted" above.
What was granted/given/graced? 2 things:
1) "the to believe" and
2) "the to suffer."
But what does the grammar imply? Does it imply that an opportunity has been given, or does it imply an efficacious reality? Can you lead a horse to the water, but he refuses to drink? So you say to your horse, "Water is scarce here. We must ride through a desert. Many horses are not allowed to drink water first. But I am a Christian horse owner; the righteous man regardeth the life of his beast. So to you by my grace it has been given to drink. Yet the horse still won't drink.
Is the parallel "to suffer" a reality or an opportunity? Do both items in parallel have to have the same interpretation? We are promised that in the world we shall have tribulation -- also told that all who will live for the Lord will suffer. But at the moment I sit in an easy chair with vibration going, using the internet with a computer, having tons of Christian songs to sing with on YouTube available, food in the fridge, A/C going, etc. I could go to Syria (I suppose I do have the opportunity -- take a plane to Turkey & sneak across the border) & try to convert ISIS, open a wedding cake business & refuse to sell to sodomist "weddings," I do have the opportunity to suffer for Christ. (Let me digress on cakes -- watching a Nazi persecute Jews movie, I was thinking that this is coming in America for Christians.)
Let us carefully consider scripture on this topic. One thing that is really annoying to me is when persons get on their hobby horse and act hateful with Christians over their understanding of election, fine-tuning of their TULIP, or the second coming of Christ.
Let us objectively & prayerfully consider this topic, being ready to change our opinions if convinced by God's Word.
Does the "deadness" of the unregenerate man imply that man unregenerate cannot have faith, cannot trust Christ as Savior? Or has the Lord given every man the ability to trust (trust a wife, trust a man selling the Brooklyn Bridge, trust the floor not to collapse as he walks across it) or to distrust? Has God chosen to make certain people spiritually alive, then they have faith, then they trust the Savior? I think that generally those who hold this POV also maintain that this is a logical order, not temporal: the regeneration & faith occur at the same instant, but the regeneration causes the faith.
So should we rewrite the Bible, add new books to it, the Book of Yohn (Yawn) with 3:16b "that whosoever has everlasting life in Him should not perish but have faith." Yacks 16:31 "Be saved, and you shall believe on the Lord Jesus Christ"???
Objection: Why God has not made robots!
Rejoinder: Where does the Bible speak of robots (quote your robot verse or drop the objection)?
At any rate, I am gathering the data, reading from cover to cover & marking.
Prooftexts which pop up in my mind in advance:
Eph 2:8ff: "For by grace you have been saved through faith, and that not of yourselves, not of works lest anyone should boast."
I don't think we can use this one because in Greek faith is a feminine noun & that is a neuter pronoun, not agreeing in gender with faith (the pronoun should agree with its antecedent in gender).
Phil. 1:29 "because to you it hath been granted in the behalf of Christ, not only to believe on him, but also to suffer in his behalf:"
The real Bible: "ὅτι ὑμῖν ἐχαρίσθη τὸ ὑπὲρ Χριστοῦ, οὐ μόνον τὸ εἰς αὐτὸν πιστεύειν ἀλλὰ καὶ τὸ ὑπὲρ αὐτοῦ πάσχειν,"
Greek readers will note that the Greek word for Grace has the same root as the word for "it has been granted" above.
What was granted/given/graced? 2 things:
1) "the to believe" and
2) "the to suffer."
But what does the grammar imply? Does it imply that an opportunity has been given, or does it imply an efficacious reality? Can you lead a horse to the water, but he refuses to drink? So you say to your horse, "Water is scarce here. We must ride through a desert. Many horses are not allowed to drink water first. But I am a Christian horse owner; the righteous man regardeth the life of his beast. So to you by my grace it has been given to drink. Yet the horse still won't drink.
Is the parallel "to suffer" a reality or an opportunity? Do both items in parallel have to have the same interpretation? We are promised that in the world we shall have tribulation -- also told that all who will live for the Lord will suffer. But at the moment I sit in an easy chair with vibration going, using the internet with a computer, having tons of Christian songs to sing with on YouTube available, food in the fridge, A/C going, etc. I could go to Syria (I suppose I do have the opportunity -- take a plane to Turkey & sneak across the border) & try to convert ISIS, open a wedding cake business & refuse to sell to sodomist "weddings," I do have the opportunity to suffer for Christ. (Let me digress on cakes -- watching a Nazi persecute Jews movie, I was thinking that this is coming in America for Christians.)
Let us carefully consider scripture on this topic. One thing that is really annoying to me is when persons get on their hobby horse and act hateful with Christians over their understanding of election, fine-tuning of their TULIP, or the second coming of Christ.
Let us objectively & prayerfully consider this topic, being ready to change our opinions if convinced by God's Word.
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