Jesus was put to death by the Romans in the Roman way - crucifixion. The Jewish priests wanted Him dead, but the Romans carried out the execution.
Stephen was put to death by the Jewish authorities in the Jewish way - stoning. The Romans were not involved.
Has anyone else given this any thought?
Yes al, I have given this some thought and there are some interesting things to be notice. Btw, I hope you don't mind if I call you "al?" Let's take Stephen first and it is interesting that a pious, orthodox Jew prayed to Jesus, calling upon Him in the moments before his own death and asking Him to receive Stephan's spirit. For the benefit of those that do not believe Jesus Christ is God like jaybird and demi, would this not be proof that Stephan had learned from the apostles regarded Jesus as God?
Secondly, in every occurrence of the phrase to "Call upon the name of the Lord" throughout the New Testament (and in the LXX(, the word "epikaleo" is employed. This is what Stephan was doing, "calling upon" the name of Jesus (the ONLY proper name mentioned in his prayer) to receive his spirit as he died. And if you think about it, would that not be the highest form of worship to call upon Jesus Christ upon your immediate death? Another thing I just thought of while writing this is even today and all through the past centuries why do the enemies of Jesus Christ ask Christians to renounce Jesus Christ or they will die if Jesus Christ is just a man?
Now, what about Jesus Christ? Your right, the Jews did want Jesus Christ dead and yet the Romans carried out His execution. Pilate said explicitly that he found no guilt in Jesus (including the guilt of treason). Jesus was not convicted of ANYTHING underRoman law. BUT the Romans had jurisdiction at the time and the Jews used the Roman system to have Jesus executed. In other words, the Jews were NOT forbidden from executing someone under their own law. They were forbidden from doing so without Roman permission, which Pilate explicitly granted. Jesus had indeed NOT violated any Roman law. He DID violate Jewish law. Of course the Jewish charge of blasphemy was false not becaue He blasphemed, but because they did not believe He is who He said He was. Sort of like some people around here!
There is another interesting thing that people don't think about regarding the trial of Jesus Christ at Matthew 26:59-66. The high priest Caiaphas ask the one person of Jesus Christ to swear to two things? Vs 63, "I adjure You by the living God, that You tell us (whether means two things) You are the (1) Christ/Messiah and (2) the Son of God." Jesus says at Luke 22:70, "Yes, I am."
I want you to know that it is not blasphemy or a crime to be put to death for claiming to be the Messiah. People do it even today and I do not know of anyone from the past till now that was killed for claiming to be the Messiah. But here is the real question? Why would the Jews want to kill Jesus for blasphemy for claiming to be the son of God since the Jews themselves claim to be sons of God? I'll let you think about that and let me please know what you come up with. Finally, the following is the Apostle John's authorial intent for him writing the gospel of John. John 20:30,31, "Many other signs therefore Jesus also peformed in the presence of the disciples, which are not written in this book; vs31, but these have been written that you may believe (two things again) (1) that Jesus is the Christ/Messiah, (2) the Son of God; and believing you may have life in His name."
IN GOD THE SON,
bluto