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N
I prefer you to look at past posts of mine in this thread, tribulation thread and Daniel timelline thread to gain understanding as to what I have posted. However... Revelation 20 states THE Thousand Years and A Thousand Years.. it is interesting that the translations posted it this way.. almost appears to be 50/50 in the reading, "a" and The".... however. all should be translated in the definite article "THE" in the Greek and none should be "a" and as we know absolutely none are translated as "one".
So the text should read The Thousand Years. Now let us think of it this way for a moment... compare to a title..... The Golden Years.... The Church Age.... The Age of Grace.....
Now also Thousand in the Greek means... (of uncertain affinity, and completeness)
compare with....
Psalm 50:10.., "For every beast of the forest is Mine, And the cattle on a thousand hills."
Does God own cattle on a literal "One" thousand hills? or on "ALL".. "completely"
The Thousand years here is not a literal, "ONE" thousand .... but "THE Thousand Years."
This is beyond a literal One thousand years, as Scripture never even mentions "ONE".
search to see if such things are so.
So the text should read The Thousand Years. Now let us think of it this way for a moment... compare to a title..... The Golden Years.... The Church Age.... The Age of Grace.....
Now also Thousand in the Greek means... (of uncertain affinity, and completeness)
compare with....
Psalm 50:10.., "For every beast of the forest is Mine, And the cattle on a thousand hills."
Does God own cattle on a literal "One" thousand hills? or on "ALL".. "completely"
The Thousand years here is not a literal, "ONE" thousand .... but "THE Thousand Years."
This is beyond a literal One thousand years, as Scripture never even mentions "ONE".
search to see if such things are so.
C
In Revelation 20, there are six times that the word for thousnad is used. In the Greek two are without an article (the), three are with the article (so, "the thousand") and one has manuscripts both ways. the problem is that you are basing this connection upon the presence of the article, which isn't consistant in the text. I would suggest that you must find a more consistant and better defined connection.
G
Actually, every time you see a noun without a definite article, in english it should be translated with the definite article.
This is because in Greek almost every noun is given the definite article. So the exception makes the noun stand out.
ho, - ,ton, tou,tw
hoi,-,tous twn,tois
In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God(definite article in the greek) and the Word was God(no definite article).
Charis, can you please clarify.
This is because in Greek almost every noun is given the definite article. So the exception makes the noun stand out.
ho, - ,ton, tou,tw
hoi,-,tous twn,tois
In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God(definite article in the greek) and the Word was God(no definite article).
Charis, can you please clarify.
C
Actually, both times it has "logos" in that verse, it has the article "o" as well as the first time for theos. The indefintie article is a rarity in languages. In English it developed late from the word "one". Generally you would avoid using "a" in translating unless it was vital to the understanding in English. The same is true for the inclusion of the--generally you include it in the translation unless it misdirects the translation. In any case, building an entire theology over the inclusion or exclusion of the definite article is a bit flimsy. As for the idea that almost every noun has a definite article, in the first five verses of John, for instance, you have sixteen nouns and ten of them have an article.
G
yeah so when in Greek, you find a definite article missing then that is like a red flag because it is in the vocative. In English a typical vocative sentence would start "LOOK!........"
The first five verses of John are unusual in that they are bringing attention to Word and to God in such a way that in English we might say 'THE Word was THE God.'
The first five verses of John are unusual in that they are bringing attention to Word and to God in such a way that in English we might say 'THE Word was THE God.'
C
The vocative is an actual noun form. John 1:1 actually says "the" Word. It goes something like this--added words in italics: In (the) beginning was the Word and the was toward/with the God and the Word was God. (the second part--the Word was God, puts the definite article in Word and not in God so that we know that Word is the subject, but puts God first in the order of the words so that it emphasises the diety of Christ.) So, there was no need to add the indefinite article for clarity and one instance "the beginning" where The definite article was neccesary in the English construction.
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